First Naukri Profit and Loss Quiz -1

Explanation:

If Walmart offers a discount of 40% on the marked price, then the product is sold at 60% of the marked price.

The question further states that when the discount offered is 40%, Walmart sells at cost price.

Therefore, selling @ 40% discount = 60% of marked price (M) = cost price (C)

i.e, \frac{60}{100}M=C

or, M=\frac{100}{60}C or M = 1.6666C

i.e., a mark up 66.66%

Explanation:
CP for Ron = 120% of 400

=\frac{120}{100}\times 400=Rs. 480

CP for Hermoine = 110% of 480

=\frac{110}{100}\times 480=Rs. 528

Explanation:
Let the original price be x, then
30% of x = 82.50
x=\frac{82.50}{30}\times 100=Rs.275
Shikhar bought food for 275 – 82.50 = Rs. 192.50

Explanation:
Marked price = 1490
1st discount = 11.25%
Price after 1st discount
= 1490 - \frac{1490\times 11.25}{100} = 1322.375
2nd discount = D%
Price after 2nd discount
= 1322.375 - \frac{1322.375\times D}{100} = 1193.44
\Rightarrow 1322.375\times (1 - \frac{D}{100}) = 1193.44
\Rightarrow (1 - \frac{D}{100}) = \frac{1193.44}{1322.375} = 0.90249
\Rightarrow \left(\frac{100 - D}{100} \right) = 0.90249
⇒ D = 9.75%

Total CP = (CP + Overhead expenses)

= ₹ (150 + 12% of 150)

=\left ( 150 + \frac{12}{100}\times 150 \right )= Rs. 168

Given that gain = 10%

∴  SP = Rs.\left(\frac{110}{100}\times 168\right) = Rs. 184.80

Let the value of assets = x, then

SP = Rs. \left(\frac{2}{3}\times x\times \frac{106}{100}+\frac{1}{3}\times x\times \frac{97}{100}=\frac{309x}{300}

Now, according to the question,

\frac{309x}{300}-x=1080

or, x = 36000 cr

In the final state, the number of female athletes should be 1.5 * the number of male athletes.

When 50% of the male athletes are taken as female athletes, let the number of male athletes = x

Number of female athletes = 1.5x

Total number of athletes = 2.5x

Original number of male athletes = 2x (50% of male athletes = x)

Original number of female athletes = 0.5x

Female athletes form 20% of the overall team.

SP of trader A = 1000 (1 + x).
Profit of trader A = 1000 (1 + x) – 1000.
MP of trader B = 2000 (1 + 2x).
SP of trader B = 2000 (1 + 2x) (1 – x).

Profit of trader B = 2000(1 + 2x) (1 – x) – 2000.
Both make the same profit => 1000(1 + x) – 1000 = 2000(1 + 2x) (1 – x) – 2000
1000x = 2000 – 4000x2 + 4000x – 2000x – 2000
4000x2 -1000x = 0
1000x (4x – 1) = 0
=> x = 25%

Shahruk’s watch = a; Salman’s watch = b
a = bx
b = a (1 + x), substituting this in the previous equation, we get
x (x + 1) = 1
x2 + x - 1 = 0 or
x is approximately 0.62 or 62%.

Let the C.P. be x and S.P. be y.
∴ Given,
3(y-x) = 2y – x
=> 3y – 3x = 2y – x
=> y = 2x
Original profit = Rs y – x
= Rs 2x – x (Since, y = 2x)
= Rs x
∴ Original profit % = x/x ∗ 100
= 100 %