TCS NQT All Slots Analysis 2023

Questions for Day 1

Questions for Day 2

Questions for Day 3

Day 4 Slot 1

Quants

Question 1 – The angle of the elevation and depression of the top and bottom of a tower from the top of a building 48√3 m high are 30 degree and 60 degree, respectively. What is the difference between the height of the tower and the building?

  1. 24m
  2. 24√3m
  3. 16m
  4. 16√3m

Answer: Option D – 16√3 m

Question 2 – The average temperature of Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 38 degrees and of Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday was 35 degrees. If the temperature of Monday and the Thursday was in a ratio 7:2, then find the temperature on Monday (in degrees)

  1. 13.6
  2. 12.6
  3. 10.6
  4. 11.6

Answer: Option B – 12.6

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Question 3 – A man wants to deposit a sum of Rs. 10,347 into the bank in the account of his son and daughter so that both will get equal money after 16 years and 18 years, respectively, at the rate of 7.5% compounded annually. Find the amount deposited in the account of the daughter.

  1. Rs. 4, 847
  2. Rs. 5, 547
  3. Rs. 5, 500
  4. Rs. 4, 800

Answer: Option D – Rs. 4800

Question 4 – A  real estate agent sells two sites for Rs. 7, 50, 000 each. On one deal he gains 25% and on another deal he losses 25%. Again, he sells two sites of cost prices Rs. 8, 00, 000 each. On one he makes 25% profit and on another a 20% loss. Firstly, he had to sell his car for Rs. 6, 60, 000 to overall reach a state of no profit and no loss. What is the percentage profit that the dealer gained in selling the car?

  1. 12%
  2. 14%
  3. 10%
  4. 8%

Answer: Option C – 8%

Question 5 – Two bottles A and B contain an acid and water mixture. Bottle A contains 40% water of total acid. And bottle B contains 60% acid of total water. How much amount of mixture should be removed from each bottle so that the new mixture contains half water and half acid if each bottle has a capacity of 190 liters?

  1. 70L, 120L
  2. 150L, 40L
  3. 40L, 150L
  4. 120L, 70L

Question 6 – The average score runned by a batter in nine innings is 40. How much does she need to score unbeaten in tenth innings so as just to be able to achieve the qualifying average of 42, which is required for a subsequent selection.

  1. 36
  2. 40
  3. 18
  4. 48

Answer: Option – C – 18

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Question 7 – If x is the LCM of 1.3, 2.6, 0.39, 0.078  and y is the HCF of 1.3, 2.6, 0.39, 0.078, then calculate the value of x-y.

  1. 7. 67
  2. 0.767
  3. 7.787
  4. 0.048

Answer: Option A – 7.67

Question 8 – What is the simplified value

\frac{\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}-2\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{25}-\frac{1}{36}}{\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}-2\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{16}\times\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{9}} \times \frac{85}{112} ?

  1. 8/25
  2. 64/25
  3. 8/5
  4. 4/ 5

Answer: Option C – 8/5

Question 9 – Mangesh has coins of Rs.1, 50 paisa and 25 paisa in the ratio of 13 : 17 : 23 and amounting to Rs. 218. Calculate the number of coins he has.

  1. 244
  2. 442
  3. 424
  4. 404

Answer: Option C – 424

Question 10 – For the following data, what is the average percentage of profit.

ItemNo of itemCPSP
A30300330
B40400480
C50500650
  1. 23%
  2. 20%
  3. 21.7%
  4. 20.7%

Answer: Option C – 21.7%

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Question 11 – A car is moving at a speed of 60km/h. The driver applies the brake and stops it over a distance in 5 seconds. Determine the distance covered in meters by car in stopping. Consider the average speed.

  1. 43.67
  2. 44.67
  3. 41.67
  4. 42.67

Answer – option C 41.47

Question 12 – Six group of people consisting of 15, 17, 21, 14, 12, 19 individuals whose mean weights are of 67, 75, 84, 96, 78, 92 pounds respectively. The mean weight of people is: (Correct to two decimals)

  1. 81.96
  2. 84.96
  3. 83.96
  4. 82.96

Answer: D – 82.96

Question 13 – In a shop, the cost price of a blue ink and a black ink is the same. Blue ink is sold at a profit of 14 (2/7)% and the selling price of black ink is 80 less than the blue ink. Find the sum of the cost price (in Rs.) of both the inks if the net profit is 6 (2/3)%.

Answer – 1088

Question 14 – 4 men and 6 women can do a piece of work in 5 days while 6 men and 4 women can do the same work in 4 days. In how many days can 4 men and 2 women do the same work?

  1. 12(1/2)days
  2. 6(1/4) days
  3. 10(1/2) days
  4. 9(1/4) days.

Answer: 6(1/4) days 

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Question 15 – The simple interest received on a sum of money at the end of 15 years is 1.5 times the principal. At the same rate of interest, if the ratio of principal and compound interest received at the end of two years is x : y, then x + y is equal to:

Answer – 121

Question 16 – 

At what rate per cent of simple interest does a sum of money double itself in 12 years.

Answer – 8.3%

TCS AdvertisementQuestion 17 – let x -> {0.\overline{1}} ,  y -> {0.\overline{01}}  and  z -> {0.\overline{2}}, then (x + y – z) =?

  1. {0.\overline{10}}
  2. {0.\overline{13}}
  3. {0.\overline{12}}
  4. {0.1\overline{3}}

Answer – {0.\overline{10}}

Question 18 – (3\sqrt 5  + 4 \sqrt 12)(3\sqrt 3  – 4 \sqrt 5) = A + B\sqrt15 ,where A and B are rational, then which of the following is true?

  1. A = 22, B = -23
  2. A = 12, B = -23
  3. A = 22, B = 23
  4. A = 12, B = 23

Answer: Option B – A =12, B = -23

Question 19 – If a + b + c = 8, then what is the value of [{(a + b)^{2} – c^{2}} + {(b + c)^{2} – a^{2}} + {(c + a)^{2} – b^{2}}](a + b + c) ? 

  1. 343
  2. 206
  3. 512
  4. 729

Answer – 512

Quants

Question 1 – The angle of the elevation and depression of the top and bottom of a tower from the top of a building 48√3 m high are 30 degree and 60 degree, respectively. What is the difference between the height of the tower and the building?

  1. 24m
  2. 24√3m
  3. 16m
  4. 16√3m

Answer: Option D – 16√3 m

Question 2 – The average temperature of Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 38 degrees and of Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday was 35 degrees. If the temperature of Monday and the Thursday was in a ratio 7:2, then find the temperature on Monday (in degrees)

  1. 13.6
  2. 12.6
  3. 10.6
  4. 11.6

Answer: Option B – 12.6

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Question 3 – A man wants to deposit a sum of Rs. 10,347 into the bank in the account of his son and daughter so that both will get equal money after 16 years and 18 years, respectively, at the rate of 7.5% compounded annually. Find the amount deposited in the account of the daughter.

  1. Rs. 4, 847
  2. Rs. 5, 547
  3. Rs. 5, 500
  4. Rs. 4, 800

Answer: Option D – Rs. 4800

Question 4 – A  real estate agent sells two sites for Rs. 7, 50, 000 each. On one deal he gains 25% and on another deal he losses 25%. Again, he sells two sites of cost prices Rs. 8, 00, 000 each. On one he makes 25% profit and on another a 20% loss. Firstly, he had to sell his car for Rs. 6, 60, 000 to overall reach a state of no profit and no loss. What is the percentage profit that the dealer gained in selling the car?

  1. 12%
  2. 14%
  3. 10%
  4. 8%

Answer: Option C – 8%

Question 5 – Two bottles A and B contain an acid and water mixture. Bottle A contains 40% water of total acid. And bottle B contains 60% acid of total water. How much amount of mixture should be removed from each bottle so that the new mixture contains half water and half acid if each bottle has a capacity of 190 liters?

  1. 70L, 120L
  2. 150L, 40L
  3. 40L, 150L
  4. 120L, 70L

Question 6 – The average score runned by a batter in nine innings is 40. How much does she need to score unbeaten in tenth innings so as just to be able to achieve the qualifying average of 42, which is required for a subsequent selection.

  1. 36
  2. 40
  3. 18
  4. 48

Answer: Option – C – 18

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Question 7 – If x is the LCM of 1.3, 2.6, 0.39, 0.078  and y is the HCF of 1.3, 2.6, 0.39, 0.078, then calculate the value of x-y.

  1. 7. 67
  2. 0.767
  3. 7.787
  4. 0.048

Answer: Option A – 7.67

Question 8 – What is the simplified value

\frac{\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}-2\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{25}-\frac{1}{36}}{\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{2}-2\times\frac{1}{2}\times\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{16}\times\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{9}} \times \frac{85}{112} ?

  1. 8/25
  2. 64/25
  3. 8/5
  4. 4/ 5

Answer: Option C – 8/5

Question 9 – Mangesh has coins of Rs.1, 50 paisa and 25 paisa in the ratio of 13 : 17 : 23 and amounting to Rs. 218. Calculate the number of coins he has.

  1. 244
  2. 442
  3. 424
  4. 404

Answer: Option C – 424

Question 10 – For the following data, what is the average percentage of profit.

ItemNo of itemCPSP
A30300330
B40400480
C50500650
  1. 23%
  2. 20%
  3. 21.7%
  4. 20.7%

Answer: Option C – 21.7%

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Question 11 – A car is moving at a speed of 60km/h. The driver applies the brake and stops it over a distance in 5 seconds. Determine the distance covered in meters by car in stopping. Consider the average speed.

  1. 43.67
  2. 44.67
  3. 41.67
  4. 42.67

Answer – option C 41.47

Question 12 – Six group of people consisting of 15, 17, 21, 14, 12, 19 individuals whose mean weights are of 67, 75, 84, 96, 78, 92 pounds respectively. The mean weight of people is: (Correct to two decimals)

  1. 81.96
  2. 84.96
  3. 83.96
  4. 82.96

Answer: D – 82.96

Question 13 – In a shop, the cost price of a blue ink and a black ink is the same. Blue ink is sold at a profit of 14 (2/7)% and the selling price of black ink is 80 less than the blue ink. Find the sum of the cost price (in Rs.) of both the inks if the net profit is 6 (2/3)%.

Answer – 1088

Question 14 – 4 men and 6 women can do a piece of work in 5 days while 6 men and 4 women can do the same work in 4 days. In how many days can 4 men and 2 women do the same work?

  1. 12(1/2)days
  2. 6(1/4) days
  3. 10(1/2) days
  4. 9(1/4) days.

Answer: 6(1/4) days 

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Question 15 – The simple interest received on a sum of money at the end of 15 years is 1.5 times the principal. At the same rate of interest, if the ratio of principal and compound interest received at the end of two years is x : y, then x + y is equal to:

Answer – 121

Question 16 – 

At what rate per cent of simple interest does a sum of money double itself in 12 years.

Answer – 8.3%

TCS AdvertisementQuestion 17 – let x -> {0.\overline{1}} ,  y -> {0.\overline{01}}  and  z -> {0.\overline{2}}, then (x + y – z) =?

  1. {0.\overline{10}}
  2. {0.\overline{13}}
  3. {0.\overline{12}}
  4. {0.1\overline{3}}

Answer – {0.\overline{10}}

Question 18 – (3\sqrt 5  + 4 \sqrt 12)(3\sqrt 3  – 4 \sqrt 5) = A + B\sqrt15 ,where A and B are rational, then which of the following is true?

  1. A = 22, B = -23
  2. A = 12, B = -23
  3. A = 22, B = 23
  4. A = 12, B = 23

Answer: Option B – A =12, B = -23

Question 19 – If a + b + c = 8, then what is the value of [{(a + b)^{2} – c^{2}} + {(b + c)^{2} – a^{2}} + {(c + a)^{2} – b^{2}}](a + b + c) ? 

  1. 343
  2. 206
  3. 512
  4. 729

Answer – 512

Verbal

Question 1 – 

Identify the error in the sentence.

Lets sit on the problem for a while so that we can process our options and feel confident about the course of action we choose.

  1. The course of action we choose
  2. Our options and feel confident about
  3. While so that we can process
  4. Lets sit on the problem for a 

Answer – D

Question 2 – 

Parts of the given sentence have been given as options. One Of them contains a grammatical error. Select the option that has the error.

Ardent readers generally admire or dislike Khushwant Singh’s style of writing, few have no opinion of him.

  1. Style of writing
  2. Generally admire or dislike
  3. No opinion of him
  4. Few have

Answer – B

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Question 3 – 

The given sentence contains four underlined phrases. Three of these phrases have been correctly used, and one has been incorrectly used. Choose the phrase from the options which best replaces the wrong phrase in the sentence.

Despite the strong gale causing turbulence to the ship, neither the captain nor the crew of sailors were perturbed.

  1. Which caused turbulent
  2. Despite of the
  3. Was perturbed
  4. Not the fleet

Answer – was perturbed 

Question 4 – 

Choose the appropriate idioms to complete the given sentence/s.

The review shows that ________ is something that the company personnel needs to avoid. Also, the fresh investment would provide ________ that this company so badly needs.

  1. Turning a corner; red tape
  2. Cutting corners; red tape
  3. Cutting corners; shot in the arm
  4. Turning a corner; shot in the arm

Answer – Cutting corners; shot in the arm

Question 5 – 

Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with most appropriate option

Specialists  who follow illegal fishing acknowledge that particular individuals and associations have 1. _______ been involved in illegal fishing. These individuals and groups can be 2._________ in various waters of the world, made fearless by the “immunity” certain laws 3. ________ to vessel owners. It is hard to mark out proprietors of vessels involved with unlawful fishing because of the convenience with which owners can set up 4. ___________ organizations that on paper “own” a vessel except that it neither has a workplace.

 

Blank 1. A. intently B. fervently C. constantly D. promptly

Blank 2. A. find B. found C. finding D. founded

Blank 3. A. provide B. bring C. afford D. administer

Blank 4. A. authentic B. original C. genuine D. fake

Options

  1. 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A
  2. 1. D 2. A. 3. B 4. C
  3. 1. C 2. D 3. A. 4. B
  4. 1. C 2. B. C. A 4. D

Answer – 1. C 2. B. C. A 4. D

Question 6 – 

Select the option that can be used as a one word substitute for the given group words.

These days being highly skilled in music or another artistic pursuit is considered a great achievement, contrary to the olden times.

  1. Versatile
  2. Virtuoso
  3. Venial
  4. Valetudinarian

Answer – Virtuoso

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Question 7 – 

Choose the most appropriate option to complete the following sentences.

On the outside _____ the five basic parts, the head, neck, torso, arms and legs. _______, there are countless biological and chemical interactions that keep the human body machine ticking over.

  1. Human anatomy consists of; Hence, beneath the skin
  2. Anatomy consists human of, However, over the skin
  3. Human anatomy consists of; however, beneath the skin
  4. Human anatomy consists; on the other hand, beneath the skin

Answer – Human anatomy consists of; however, beneath the skin

Question 8 – 

Given below is a paragraph with five sentences, which are presented in a jumbled order. Write down the best order (E.g ABCDE) which would form a meaningful unified and coherent paragraph.

  1. The awareness and involvement in the Republican’s ability to maintain the backing of their supporters even on issues on which the position of Democratic Party is widely popular.
  2. Most Americans support liberal policies on the social welfare agenda, the dominant policy cleavage in American politics, yet a striking feature of the US party system is its tendency to equilibrium.
  3. Republican identifiers are ideologically aware and oriented to a degree that far exceeds their Democratic counterparts.
  4. Democrats use two mechanisms, party branding and the use of the status quo as a focal point, to retain or rally support for issues on the social welfare agenda on which the Republican party’s position is widely popular.
  5. Cross sectional, longitudinal, and experimental data reveal a deep ideological asymmetry between the parties.

Answer – BECAD

Question 9 – 

For the four sentence paragraph below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From P, Q, R, and S, select the appropriate sentences that can fit S2 and S3, respectively.

S1: The term “unemployment” is often misunderstood as it includes people who are waiting to return to a job after getting discharged.

S2:

S3:

S4: The categories mentioned above sometimes cause confusion and debate as to whether the unemployment rate fully represents the actual number of people who are unemployed.

 

P: For a full understanding, one should juxtapose ‘unemployment’ with the term ‘employment’

Q: Also, people who are not actively seeking a job but do want to work are not classified as unemployed.

R: Yet it does not include individuals who have stopped looking for work in the past four weeks due to various reasons such as leaving work to pursue higher education, retirement, disability, and personal issues.

S: Discouraged workers’ refers to people who have given up looking for a good job.

Answer – QR

Question 10 – 

 Choose the most appropriate option to complete the following sentences

If you are serious about growing your brand, don’t just _________________ a vast audience. Although they are an obvious place to start *****

 

Options

  1. Focus in on the large sites with; ways to engage prospects
  2. Focus on the large sites for; way to engage your prospects
  3. Focus at the large sites with; ways to engaged your prospects
  4. Focus on the large sites with; ways to engage your prospects

Answer – D

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Verbal

Question 1 – 

Identify the error in the sentence.

Lets sit on the problem for a while so that we can process our options and feel confident about the course of action we choose.

  1. The course of action we choose
  2. Our options and feel confident about
  3. While so that we can process
  4. Lets sit on the problem for a

Answer – D

Question 2 – 

Parts of the given sentence have been given as options. One Of them contains a grammatical error. Select the option that has the error.

Ardent readers generally admire or dislike Khushwant Singh’s style of writing, few have no opinion of him.

  1. Style of writing
  2. Generally admire or dislike
  3. No opinion of him
  4. Few have

Answer – B

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Question 3 – 

The given sentence contains four underlined phrases. Three of these phrases have been correctly used, and one has been incorrectly used. Choose the phrase from the options which best replaces the wrong phrase in the sentence.

Despite the strong gale causing turbulence to the ship, neither the captain nor the crew of sailors were perturbed.

  1. Which caused turbulent
  2. Despite of the
  3. Was perturbed
  4. Not the fleet

Answer – was perturbed 

Question 4 – 

Choose the appropriate idioms to complete the given sentence/s.

The review shows that ________ is something that the company personnel needs to avoid. Also, the fresh investment would provide ________ that this company so badly needs.

  1. Turning a corner; red tape
  2. Cutting corners; red tape
  3. Cutting corners; shot in the arm
  4. Turning a corner; shot in the arm

Answer – Cutting corners; shot in the arm

Question 5 – 

Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with most appropriate option

Specialists  who follow illegal fishing acknowledge that particular individuals and associations have 1. _______ been involved in illegal fishing. These individuals and groups can be 2._________ in various waters of the world, made fearless by the “immunity” certain laws 3. ________ to vessel owners. It is hard to mark out proprietors of vessels involved with unlawful fishing because of the convenience with which owners can set up 4. ___________ organizations that on paper “own” a vessel except that it neither has a workplace.

Blank 1. A. intently B. fervently C. constantly D. promptly

Blank 2. A. find B. found C. finding D. founded

Blank 3. A. provide B. bring C. afford D. administer

Blank 4. A. authentic B. original C. genuine D. fake

Options

  1. 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A
  2. 1. D 2. A. 3. B 4. C
  3. 1. C 2. D 3. A. 4. B
  4. 1. C 2. B. C. A 4. D

Answer – 1. C 2. B. C. A 4. D

Question 6 – 

Select the option that can be used as a one word substitute for the given group words.

These days being highly skilled in music or another artistic pursuit is considered a great achievement, contrary to the olden times.

  1. Versatile
  2. Virtuoso
  3. Venial
  4. Valetudinarian

Answer – Virtuoso

TCS Advertisement

Question 7 – 

Choose the most appropriate option to complete the following sentences.

On the outside _____ the five basic parts, the head, neck, torso, arms and legs. _______, there are countless biological and chemical interactions that keep the human body machine ticking over.

  1. Human anatomy consists of; Hence, beneath the skin
  2. Anatomy consists human of, However, over the skin
  3. Human anatomy consists of; however, beneath the skin
  4. Human anatomy consists; on the other hand, beneath the skin

Answer – Human anatomy consists of; however, beneath the skin

Question 8 – 

Given below is a paragraph with five sentences, which are presented in a jumbled order. Write down the best order (E.g ABCDE) which would form a meaningful unified and coherent paragraph.

  1. The awareness and involvement in the Republican’s ability to maintain the backing of their supporters even on issues on which the position of Democratic Party is widely popular.
  2. Most Americans support liberal policies on the social welfare agenda, the dominant policy cleavage in American politics, yet a striking feature of the US party system is its tendency to equilibrium.
  3. Republican identifiers are ideologically aware and oriented to a degree that far exceeds their Democratic counterparts.
  4. Democrats use two mechanisms, party branding and the use of the status quo as a focal point, to retain or rally support for issues on the social welfare agenda on which the Republican party’s position is widely popular.
  5. Cross sectional, longitudinal, and experimental data reveal a deep ideological asymmetry between the parties.

Answer – BECAD

Question 9 – 

For the four sentence paragraph below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From P, Q, R, and S, select the appropriate sentences that can fit S2 and S3, respectively.

S1: The term “unemployment” is often misunderstood as it includes people who are waiting to return to a job after getting discharged.

S2:

S3:

S4: The categories mentioned above sometimes cause confusion and debate as to whether the unemployment rate fully represents the actual number of people who are unemployed.

P: For a full understanding, one should juxtapose ‘unemployment’ with the term ‘employment’

Q: Also, people who are not actively seeking a job but do want to work are not classified as unemployed.

R: Yet it does not include individuals who have stopped looking for work in the past four weeks due to various reasons such as leaving work to pursue higher education, retirement, disability, and personal issues.

S: Discouraged workers’ refers to people who have given up looking for a good job.

Answer – QR

Question 10 – 

Choose the most appropriate option to complete the following sentences

If you are serious about growing your brand, don’t just _________________ a vast audience. Although they are an obvious place to start *****

Options

  1. Focus in on the large sites with; ways to engage prospects
  2. Focus on the large sites for; way to engage your prospects
  3. Focus at the large sites with; ways to engaged your prospects
  4. Focus on the large sites with; ways to engage your prospects

Answer – D

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Logical

Question 1 – 

  1. In a certain code,

A%B means ‘A is the father of B’
A#B means ‘A is the husband of B’
A$S means ‘B is the mother of A’
A+B means ‘B is the son of A’
A@B means ‘B is the brother of A’
A&B means ‘B is the sister of A’

Which of the sign words replace the stars in the following expression in the proper order to establish that L is the sister-in-law of G? 

G*H*J*K*L

 

  1. %, &, $, @ 
  2. @. %, &, $, 
  3. #, $, &, &
  4. +, %, &, $

Answer: +, %, &, $

Question 2 – 

Select the option that is related to third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and sixth is related to the fifth number.

15 : 111 :: 18 : ? :: 21 : 153

  1. 144
  2. 152
  3. 145
  4. 132

Answer: 132

Question 3 – 

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark in the following series.

14,29,59,119,239,?

  1. 470
  2. 522
  3. 488
  4. 479

Answer: 479

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Question 4 –

A question is given, followed by two statements labeled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Question:

Six females Amani, Bhavya, Dhruthi, Sadvi, Minnu and Prerna participated in a Rangoli competition. Who among them stood in the first position?

Statements:

  1. Amani finished the rangoli before two women only. Dhruthi was not the last one to finish the rangoli. Sadvi finished the rangoli just before Minnu.
  2. No other women finished the rangoli after Prerna, who finished the rangoli just after Dhruthi, Bhavya finished the rangoli before Dhruthi.

 

  1. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
  2. Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
  3. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
  4. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

Question 5 – 

At a family function, five family members, two parents and three children have to sit a five chairs for the photograph kept in a row. Estimate the number of ways in which children will NOT occupy consecutive seats.

  1. 74
  2. 84
  3. 64
  4. 94

Answer: 74

Question 6 –

 A statement is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide which of the argument(s) is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement:

Hardwork is the key to success.

 

Argument:

  1. Yes. Success without hardwork is not permanent.
  2. No. One should use tricks instead of hardwork for quick success.

 

  1. Only argument I is strong
  2. None of argument  is strong
  3. Both arguments are strong
  4. Only argument II is strong.

Answer: None of argument  is strong


Question 7 – Four letter-cluster pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different

 

Options

  1. GIKMOQ: NRVMST
  2. PRTVXZ: WAEUYC
  3. BDFHJL: IMQGKO
  4. JLNPRT: QUYOSW

 

Answer:  GIKMOQ: NRVMST

 

Question 8 – Statement is given, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

 

Statement

Should the banking sector in India be privatized like other private sector enterprises?

 

Arguments

  1. Yes, This is the possibility to strengthen the banking system and provide the best services to the public
  2. No this will pose a long time threat to our nation’s information and intellectual property and to our economic vitality as big business tycoons will enter into the tray

 

Options

  1. Either argument I or II is strong
  2. Neither argument I or II is strong
  3. Only argument I is strong
  4. Only argument II is strong 

 

Answer: Either argument I or II is strong

Logical

Question 1 – 

  1. In a certain code,

A%B means ‘A is the father of B’
A#B means ‘A is the husband of B’
A$S means ‘B is the mother of A’
A+B means ‘B is the son of A’
A@B means ‘B is the brother of A’
A&B means ‘B is the sister of A’

Which of the sign words replace the stars in the following expression in the proper order to establish that L is the sister-in-law of G?

G*H*J*K*L

  1. %, &, $, @
  2. @. %, &, $,
  3. #, $, &, &
  4. +, %, &, $

Answer: +, %, &, $

Question 2 – 

Select the option that is related to third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and sixth is related to the fifth number.

15 : 111 :: 18 : ? :: 21 : 153

  1. 144
  2. 152
  3. 145
  4. 132

Answer: 132

Question 3 – 

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark in the following series.

14,29,59,119,239,?

  1. 470
  2. 522
  3. 488
  4. 479

Answer: 479

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Question 4 –

A question is given, followed by two statements labeled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Question:

Six females Amani, Bhavya, Dhruthi, Sadvi, Minnu and Prerna participated in a Rangoli competition. Who among them stood in the first position?

Statements:

  1. Amani finished the rangoli before two women only. Dhruthi was not the last one to finish the rangoli. Sadvi finished the rangoli just before Minnu.
  2. No other women finished the rangoli after Prerna, who finished the rangoli just after Dhruthi, Bhavya finished the rangoli before Dhruthi.

 

  1. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
  2. Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
  3. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
  4. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

Question 5 – 

At a family function, five family members, two parents and three children have to sit a five chairs for the photograph kept in a row. Estimate the number of ways in which children will NOT occupy consecutive seats.

  1. 74
  2. 84
  3. 64
  4. 94

Answer: 74

Question 6 –

A statement is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide which of the argument(s) is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement:

Hardwork is the key to success.

 

Argument:

  1. Yes. Success without hardwork is not permanent.
  2. No. One should use tricks instead of hardwork for quick success.

 

  1. Only argument I is strong
  2. None of argument  is strong
  3. Both arguments are strong
  4. Only argument II is strong.

Answer: None of argument  is strong


Question 7 – Four letter-cluster pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different

Options

  1. GIKMOQ: NRVMST
  2. PRTVXZ: WAEUYC
  3. BDFHJL: IMQGKO
  4. JLNPRT: QUYOSW

Answer:  GIKMOQ: NRVMST

Question 8 – Statement is given, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement

Should the banking sector in India be privatized like other private sector enterprises?

Arguments

  1. Yes, This is the possibility to strengthen the banking system and provide the best services to the public
  2. No this will pose a long time threat to our nation’s information and intellectual property and to our economic vitality as big business tycoons will enter into the tray

Options

  1. Either argument I or II is strong
  2. Neither argument I or II is strong
  3. Only argument I is strong
  4. Only argument II is strong

Answer: Either argument I or II is strong

Coding

Question 1

Praveen is trying to create a sequence. He wants to create such a sequence which can irritate people. That’s why he has named this sequence as Dirty Sequence

As per the rule, a sequence A[ ] of integers is called a dirty sequence when:

  • Length of sequence N >= 3.
  • For each index i (excluding first and the last index). the value of each element should be such that 2* A[i] > A[i-1] + A[i+1]
  • Each element of the sequence will be in range of [1 to K], where K is the input given by the user.

Given a positive integer K. Find the maximum length of the dirty sequence that can be made so that each element of the sequence will be integers in the range [1 to K].

The largest dirty sequence may not be unique, as long the length is largest.

Let us try to understand it with an example.

Input from the user is K=3
So now the elements inside this dirty sequence have to be either 1 or 2 or 3. And all the elements should follow the above mentioned constraint.

One of the possible sequences would be {1,3,3,2}

Exclude A[n] and A[4]
A[2] =9, which is greater than (3+1)/2 = 2
A[3) = 3, which is greater than (3+2)/2 = 2.5

We cannot achieve any dirty sequence with length > 4.

Hence the condition satisfies this sequence. So the maximum length that can be achieved with K = 3, is 4.

So the answer is 4.

Example 1:

  • Input:
    5 -> input integer, K
  • Output:
    6 -> Output
  • Explanation:
    One of the possible dirty sequences we have is [2, 4, 5, 5, 4, 1]
    Exclude A[1] and A[6]
    A[2] = 4, which is greater than (2+5)/2 = 3.5
    A[3] = 5, which is greater than (5+4)/2 = 4.5
    A[4] = 5, which is greater than (5+4)/2 = 4.5
    A[5] = 4, which is greater than (5+1)/2 = 3

We cannot achieve any dirty sequence with length > 6.
Hence the condition satisfies this sequence. So the maximum length that can be achieved with K = 5, is 6.

So the answer is 6.

Example 2:

  • Input:
    3 -> Input integer, K
  • Output:
    4 -> Output
  • Explanation:
    One of the possible sequences would be {1,3,3,2}

Exclude A[1] and A[4]
A[2] = 3, which is greater than (3+1)/2 = 2
A[3] = 3, which is greater than (3+2)/2 = 2.5

We cannot achieve any dirty sequence with length > 4.
Hence the condition satisfies this sequence. So the maximum length that can be achieved with K = 3, is 4.

So the answer is 4.

 

Question 2

King Jeremy’s family has ruled a kingdom for N consecutive years numbered from 1 to N.

The year i is described by a prosperity value A[i]. This is a positive integer when there was a prosperity in year hand a negative integer when it was a difficult year for the kingdom.

A historical period is described with two integers, S and F as [S,F], i.e. [Start, Finish], where S, F are from 1, to N, S<=F

The target is to pick 2 historical periods, with the following 6 conditions:

  1. The two periods shouldn’t have common years. Foro example (1,5) has no common year with [6,7).
  2. First period should start earlier than the second one, 1.e. (1,5) should be the first period and then the [6,7] should start.
  3. There should be a difference of more than K integers between the Finish of first period and start of 2nd period.
  4. Sum of prosperity values for the years in the periods chosen should be as large as possible.

Given N, A[] and K, give this maximum prosperity value as output.

For e.g.
N = 5, number of years
K = 3, difference between 2 periods.
A = {-1, 1, 2, 3, -1} prosperity value for each year.

There is only 1 way to choose the two periods, which is [1,1] and [5,5) as the difference has to be greater than 3 (value of K).

The prosperity values for these are
[1,1]=-1
[5,5) 2-1
Sum of this value is -2. Hence, the answer is -2.

Example 1:

  • Input:
    8 -> Input Integer, N
    3 -> Input Integer, K
    {5, 5, -1, -2, 3, -1, 2, -2} -> Input sequence, A[ ].
  • Output:
    12 -> Output
  • Explanation:
    In the above case: N equals to 8, K equals to 3, Al equals to {5, 5,-1,-2,3,-1, 2, -2}. It is optimal to choose [1, 2] and [7, 7) periods. That is the only optimal choice that you can make.
    So the values will be
    [1, 2] = 5 5
    [7, 7] = 2
    The sum of it will be 5 + 5 + 2 = 12

Example 2:

  • Input:
    6 -> Input Integer, N
    0 -> input Integer, K
    {5, -1, 5, 0, -1, 9} -> Input sequence A[ ].
  • Output:
    18 -> Output

Explanation:
In the above case: N equals to 6, K equals to 0. All equals to {5,-1,5, 0, 1,9}. It is optimal to choose [1, 3] and [6, 6] periods. But that is not the only optimal choice that you can make So the values will be
[1, 3]  = 5 – 1 5
[6, 6] = 9

The sum of it will be 5 -1+5+9 = 18

 

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Advance Quants

Question 1 – 

Read the table and answer the following questions

The given table shows area of cultivation and total production of wheat 2018-19

 

StatesArea (‘000 Hectares)Production (million nuts)
Telangana106.31162.5
Bihar18.6143.2
Andhra Pradesh23.0111.2
Tamil nadu315.81572.3
Karnataka895.65238.0
Kerala16.0215.8
Uttar Pradesh128.03165.5
Madhya Pradesh298.02555.5
West Bengal106.52896.0
Gujrat95.31032.5
All India2003.118092.3

 

Which states have the highest and lowest production?

  1. Bihar, Gujrat
  2. Telangana, Andhra Pradesh
  3. Kerala, karnataka
  4. West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh

Answer: Option C – Kerala, Karnataka

Question 2 – 

If the real numbers x, y, z satisfy the equation (x + y)^{2} + (y + z)^{2} + (z + x)^{2} = 2(xy + yz + zx) find the value of the expression 3x + 5y + 7z.

 

FUB

______

Question 3 –

. If x + y + z = 0, what is the value of \frac{x^{3} + y^{3} + z^{3}}{xyz}

Answer – 3

 

Question 4 –

If x, y, z are positive real numbers, then the minimum value of \frac{x^{2}y + y^{2}z + z^{2}x + xy^{2} + yz^{2} + zx^{2}}{xyz} is:

  1. 6
  2. 14
  3. 9
  4. 12

Answer – 9

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Question 5 – 

If a and b are roots of px^{2} + qx + r = 0, then \frac{1}{a^{2}} + \frac{1}{b^{2}} ?:

 

  1. \frac{q^{2} – 2pr}{pr^{2}}
  2. \frac{q^{2} – 4pr}{qr^{2}}
  3. \frac{r}{p}
  4. q^{2} – 4pr

Answer – \frac{q^{2} – 2pr}{pr^{2}}

Question 6 – 

There is a right circular cylinder of height 30 cm and radius (2/pi) cm which is kept vertically such that the flat surfaces are horizontal. A wire is coiled around the cylinder such that the angle between the wire with the vertical direction remains unchanged. If the wire is wound ten times what is its minimum length (in cm)?

  1. 40
  2. 60
  3. 50
  4. 44

Answer: 40

Question 7 – 

A basket contains 15 apples and 25 oranges out of which 4 apples and 6 oranges are defective. If we choose two fruits at random, what is the probability that either both are oranges or both are non-defective?

  1. \frac{47}{65}
  2. \frac{23}{35}
  3. \frac{19}{55}
  4. \frac{31}{45}

Answer:- \frac{47}{65}

 

Question 8. Read the table and answer the following questions

The given table shows area of cultivation and total production of wheat 2018-19

 

StatesArea (‘000 Hectares)Production (million nuts)
Telangana106.31162.5
Bihar18.6143.2
Andhra Pradesh23.0111.2
Tamil nadu315.81572.3
Karnataka895.65238.0
Kerala16.0215.8
Uttar Pradesh128.03165.5
Madhya Pradesh298.02555.5
West Bengal106.52896.0
Gujrat95.31032.5
All India2003.118092.3

 

Find the number of states in which the production is more than the national (All India) productivity level.

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer: 4

 

Question 9. Read the table and answer the following questions

The given table shows area of cultivation and total production of wheat 2018-19

 

StatesArea (‘000 Hectares)Production (million nuts)
Telangana106.31162.5
Bihar18.6143.2
Andhra Pradesh23.0111.2
Tamil nadu315.81572.3
Karnataka895.65238.0
Kerala16.0215.8
Uttar Pradesh128.03165.5
Madhya Pradesh298.02555.5
West Bengal106.52896.0
Gujrat95.31032.5
All India2003.118092.3

 

In how many states is the production of wheat less than the national average production per state?  (consider only the given states)

  1. 6
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 4

Answer: 6

 

Question 10. How many four-digit numbers ( to the decimal representation) are there that are divisible by 3 or 5 but NOT by both 3 and 5?

Answer: 4200

Advance Logical

Question 1 –

In a school debate competition, a group of five boys viz, Saradhi, Mohit, Arpith, Tom and Kalyani and a group of five girls Srika, Jyothi, Preeti Gayatri and Tripura are sitting in two separate rows facing each other but not necessarily in the same order. The group of boys is facing the north. Kalyan is not at any of the ends. Arpith is to the immediate right of Mohit and Tom is to the immediate left of Saradhi, who is facing Sarika. There are as many girls between Sarika and Jyothi as between Preethi and Gayatri. Saketh is second left of Mohit. Gayatri and Preethi are not facing either Mohit or Tom. Who is third to the right of tom?

 

Question is wrong

 

Answer: _________ .

Question 2 – 

In a certain code language, AKBARA is written as ‘17’. How will AJNARAA be written in that language ? 

Answer: 23.

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Question 3 – 

Five friends Abdul, Akbar, Aslam, Ayya and Azhar read a magazine and see a social advertise and pass to another to read. The one who reads first gives it to Aslam. The one who reads last had taken from Abdul. Azhar was not the first or last to read.There were two readers between Akbar and Abdul, Abdul read social advertise after which friend? 

Answer: Azhar. 

Question 4 – 

Dr Ashok Mohanty is a busy cancer specialist and needs a well- skilled, reliable and highly experienced physiotherapist. The previous two physiotherapists who worked with Dr Mohanty 

were recruited and selected from one of the renowned physiotherapy institutes, but each of them but each of them could work with Dr.Mohanty for less than one month only. There is a acute need for a physiotherapist who can competently manage the physiotherapy needs of the patient. A placement agency has recommended a candidate named Leela who has recently graduated in physiotherapy from a renowned physiotherapy school as the topper of the class. Leela is a gold medalist. She has completed an internship for one year. Will the suggested candidate be suitable for Dr.Mohanty or not ? 

Answer:   No. (Not highly experienced)

Question 5 – 

Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

The head of the department of education of the Teacher education center organizes a workshop on Research Methodology. There are six different lectures on the topics:- qualitative research, quantitative research, content analysis, correlational research, statistics and SPSS. Only one each day from Monday to Sunday. The conditions are as follows:-

 

  1. Correlational research should be delivered immediately after statistics.
  2. Content Analysis should be delivered on Wednesday and should not be followed by SPSS.
  3. Quantitative research should be delivered on Friday and there should be a gap of two days between qualitatative and SPSS
  4. One day there will be no lecture (Saturday is not that day) just before that day lecture on SPSS will be delivered.

 

Which of the following pairs of lectures were delivered on the first and last day?

 

  1. SPSS and correlational research
  2. SPSS and quantitative research
  3. Content analysis and correlational research
  4. Qualitative and statistics.

 

Answer:- SPSS and correlational research

Question 6 – 

A question is given followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are  sufficient to answer the question.

 

Question:-

There are five companies – M, N, P, R and Q situated in the same building. Only one company is there on each floor. The lowermost floor is numbered as 1 and above the same is numbered as 2 and so on. On which floor is company P situated?

 

Statements:-

  1. M’s floor which is adjacent to P, is exactly below R’s floor which is the fifth floor.
  2. P’s floor is exactly above Q’s floor, whose floor is exactly above N’s floor which is first.

 

  1. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  2. Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
  3. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
  4. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

 

Answer:- Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

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Question 7 – 

In a certain code language, ‘DRINK’ is written as ‘FJFPC’ and ‘NIGHT’ is written as ‘ODDGM’. How will  SILENT be written in that language?

  1. NHZIHQ
  2. AINIGR
  3. INIBRG
  4. NIAIGR

 

Answer.d  NIAIGR

Advance Quants

Question 1 – 

Read the table and answer the following questions

The given table shows area of cultivation and total production of wheat 2018-19

StatesArea (‘000 Hectares)Production (million nuts)
Telangana106.31162.5
Bihar18.6143.2
Andhra Pradesh23.0111.2
Tamil nadu315.81572.3
Karnataka895.65238.0
Kerala16.0215.8
Uttar Pradesh128.03165.5
Madhya Pradesh298.02555.5
West Bengal106.52896.0
Gujrat95.31032.5
All India2003.118092.3

Which states have the highest and lowest production?

  1. Bihar, Gujrat
  2. Telangana, Andhra Pradesh
  3. Kerala, karnataka
  4. West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh

Answer: Option C – Kerala, Karnataka

Question 2 – 

If the real numbers x, y, z satisfy the equation (x + y)^{2} + (y + z)^{2} + (z + x)^{2} = 2(xy + yz + zx) find the value of the expression 3x + 5y + 7z.

FUB

______

Question 3 –

. If x + y + z = 0, what is the value of \frac{x^{3} + y^{3} + z^{3}}{xyz}

Answer – 3

Question 4 –

If x, y, z are positive real numbers, then the minimum value of \frac{x^{2}y + y^{2}z + z^{2}x + xy^{2} + yz^{2} + zx^{2}}{xyz} is:

  1. 6
  2. 14
  3. 9
  4. 12

Answer – 9

TCS Advertisement

Question 5 – 

If a and b are roots of px^{2} + qx + r = 0, then \frac{1}{a^{2}} + \frac{1}{b^{2}} ?:

  1. \frac{q^{2} – 2pr}{pr^{2}}
  2. \frac{q^{2} – 4pr}{qr^{2}}
  3. \frac{r}{p}
  4. q^{2} – 4pr

Answer – \frac{q^{2} – 2pr}{pr^{2}}

Question 6 – 

There is a right circular cylinder of height 30 cm and radius (2/pi) cm which is kept vertically such that the flat surfaces are horizontal. A wire is coiled around the cylinder such that the angle between the wire with the vertical direction remains unchanged. If the wire is wound ten times what is its minimum length (in cm)?

  1. 40
  2. 60
  3. 50
  4. 44

Answer: 40

Question 7 – 

A basket contains 15 apples and 25 oranges out of which 4 apples and 6 oranges are defective. If we choose two fruits at random, what is the probability that either both are oranges or both are non-defective?

  1. \frac{47}{65}
  2. \frac{23}{35}
  3. \frac{19}{55}
  4. \frac{31}{45}

Answer:- \frac{47}{65}

Question 8. Read the table and answer the following questions

The given table shows area of cultivation and total production of wheat 2018-19

StatesArea (‘000 Hectares)Production (million nuts)
Telangana106.31162.5
Bihar18.6143.2
Andhra Pradesh23.0111.2
Tamil nadu315.81572.3
Karnataka895.65238.0
Kerala16.0215.8
Uttar Pradesh128.03165.5
Madhya Pradesh298.02555.5
West Bengal106.52896.0
Gujrat95.31032.5
All India2003.118092.3

Find the number of states in which the production is more than the national (All India) productivity level.

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer: 4

Question 9. Read the table and answer the following questions

The given table shows area of cultivation and total production of wheat 2018-19

StatesArea (‘000 Hectares)Production (million nuts)
Telangana106.31162.5
Bihar18.6143.2
Andhra Pradesh23.0111.2
Tamil nadu315.81572.3
Karnataka895.65238.0
Kerala16.0215.8
Uttar Pradesh128.03165.5
Madhya Pradesh298.02555.5
West Bengal106.52896.0
Gujrat95.31032.5
All India2003.118092.3

In how many states is the production of wheat less than the national average production per state?  (consider only the given states)

  1. 6
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 4

Answer: 6

Question 10. How many four-digit numbers ( to the decimal representation) are there that are divisible by 3 or 5 but NOT by both 3 and 5?

Answer: 4200

Advance Logical

Question 1 –

In a school debate competition, a group of five boys viz, Saradhi, Mohit, Arpith, Tom and Kalyani and a group of five girls Srika, Jyothi, Preeti Gayatri and Tripura are sitting in two separate rows facing each other but not necessarily in the same order. The group of boys is facing the north. Kalyan is not at any of the ends. Arpith is to the immediate right of Mohit and Tom is to the immediate left of Saradhi, who is facing Sarika. There are as many girls between Sarika and Jyothi as between Preethi and Gayatri. Saketh is second left of Mohit. Gayatri and Preethi are not facing either Mohit or Tom. Who is third to the right of tom?

 

Question is wrong

 

Answer: _________ .

Question 2 – 

In a certain code language, AKBARA is written as ‘17’. How will AJNARAA be written in that language ?

Answer: 23.

TCS Advertisement

Question 3 – 

Five friends Abdul, Akbar, Aslam, Ayya and Azhar read a magazine and see a social advertise and pass to another to read. The one who reads first gives it to Aslam. The one who reads last had taken from Abdul. Azhar was not the first or last to read.There were two readers between Akbar and Abdul, Abdul read social advertise after which friend?

Answer: Azhar. 

Question 4 – 

Dr Ashok Mohanty is a busy cancer specialist and needs a well- skilled, reliable and highly experienced physiotherapist. The previous two physiotherapists who worked with Dr Mohanty

were recruited and selected from one of the renowned physiotherapy institutes, but each of them but each of them could work with Dr.Mohanty for less than one month only. There is a acute need for a physiotherapist who can competently manage the physiotherapy needs of the patient. A placement agency has recommended a candidate named Leela who has recently graduated in physiotherapy from a renowned physiotherapy school as the topper of the class. Leela is a gold medalist. She has completed an internship for one year. Will the suggested candidate be suitable for Dr.Mohanty or not ?

Answer:   No. (Not highly experienced)

Question 5 – 

Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

The head of the department of education of the Teacher education center organizes a workshop on Research Methodology. There are six different lectures on the topics:- qualitative research, quantitative research, content analysis, correlational research, statistics and SPSS. Only one each day from Monday to Sunday. The conditions are as follows:-

  1. Correlational research should be delivered immediately after statistics.
  2. Content Analysis should be delivered on Wednesday and should not be followed by SPSS.
  3. Quantitative research should be delivered on Friday and there should be a gap of two days between qualitatative and SPSS
  4. One day there will be no lecture (Saturday is not that day) just before that day lecture on SPSS will be delivered.

Which of the following pairs of lectures were delivered on the first and last day?

  1. SPSS and correlational research
  2. SPSS and quantitative research
  3. Content analysis and correlational research
  4. Qualitative and statistics.

Answer:- SPSS and correlational research

Question 6 – 

A question is given followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are  sufficient to answer the question.

Question:-

There are five companies – M, N, P, R and Q situated in the same building. Only one company is there on each floor. The lowermost floor is numbered as 1 and above the same is numbered as 2 and so on. On which floor is company P situated?

Statements:-

  1. M’s floor which is adjacent to P, is exactly below R’s floor which is the fifth floor.
  2. P’s floor is exactly above Q’s floor, whose floor is exactly above N’s floor which is first.
  1. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  2. Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
  3. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
  4. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

Answer:- Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

TCS Advertisement

Question 7 – 

In a certain code language, ‘DRINK’ is written as ‘FJFPC’ and ‘NIGHT’ is written as ‘ODDGM’. How will  SILENT be written in that language?

  1. NHZIHQ
  2. AINIGR
  3. INIBRG
  4. NIAIGR

Answer.d  NIAIGR

Day 4 - Slot 2

Quants

 

  1. Deepak wants to utilize his unused land and wants to cultivate some fruit bearing trees. He planted 616 apple trees, 770 banana trees and 1540 orange trees in an equal row of the same number of trees, and there should be only one type of tree in one row. Find out the minimum number of rows.

 

  1. 15
  2. 17
  3. 21
  4. 19

 

Answer: Option D – 19

 

  1. The daily wages of workers are Rs 100. Five workers can do work in 10 days. If you pay 20 more daily, they agree to do 25% more work daily. If the proposal is accepted, then the total amount that could be saved as:

 

  1. Rs 350
  2. Rs 280
  3. Rs 200
  4. Rs 300

 

Answer: Option C – Rs. 200

 

  1. What is the simplified value of \frac{0.3 + 0.4}{\left[ \left( 0.03 \right)^{2} + \left( 0.04 \right)^{2} \right]} * \overline{0.142857} ?

 

  1. 7
  2. 40
  3. 400
  4. 0.07

 

Answer: OptionB – 40

 

  1. Four years ago, the average age of  a father, mother and a son was 28 years. Three years ago the average age of the son and mother was 25 years. What is the present age of father?

 

  1. 40
  2. 48
  3. 96
  4. 56

Answer: Option A – 40

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  1. A car covers 3600km in 45 hours. The speed of a bus is 6km/h, more than 130% of the speed of the car. How much distance will be covered by the bus in 4\tfrac{1}{2} hours?

 

Options

  1. 495km
  2. 438 km
  3. 535 km
  4. 512km

 

Answer: Option A – 495 km

 

  1. A factory increased  its production of three wheelers from 8000 in 1999 to 92160 in 2002. The annual rate of growth of three wheelers is:-

 

  1. 7%
  2. 5%
  3. 9%
  4. 8%

 

Answer: Option B – 5% (Question wrong 92160 need to replace with 9216)

 

  1. A bank offers two different schemes at the same rate of investment. A woman chose scheme II to invest a sum of money but due to fall in interest rate from 13% to 12 ½ % , her yearly income diminished by Rs 104. Calculate the compound interest on the same amount for 2 years at the same rate if she invested in scheme I.

 

  1. Rs 5,757
  2. Rs 5,759.5
  3. Rs 5,559
  4. Rs 5, 700

 

Answer: Option B – 5759.52

 

  1. If any item was sold for Rs. 2000, the shopkeeper was in a loss of x%. The same item sold at Rs. 3000 made a profit of y%. What is the value of x and y respectively?
  1. 80, 20
  2. 70, 30
  3. 20, 80
  4. 30, 70

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Answer:

 

  1. Rohan, Mohan and Sohan decided to sell their TV, fridge and phone, respectively. The cost price of the TV was Rs. 12, 775and Rohan sold it for a profit of 12%. The cost price of the fridge was Rs 51,100 and Mohan earned a profit of 14% by selling it. If the cost price of the phone is equal to the selling price of the TV and Sohan suffered a loss equal to half the amount of profit gained by Mohan , then what is the selling price of the phone?

 

  1. Rs. 10,213
  2. Rs. 10,731
  3. Rs. 11,337
  4. Rs. 9,877

 

Answer: Option B – Rs. 10,731

 

10.There are two sections A and B in a school, 20 students of B shifted to A. It resulted in the strength of A Becoming twice the strength of B. If the 10 students shifts from A to B, The strength of A and B becomes equal, Determine the ratio of A and B Initially

 

  1. 5:2
  2. 5:4
  3. 4:5
  4. 5:3

 

Answer: Option B – 5:4

 

  1. The length of a room is 1.5 times its breadth. The cost of carpeting the room at Rs. 15m2 is Rs. 1,440 and the cost of painting the walls at the rate of Rs. 8m2 is Rs. 3,200. What is the sum of the dimensions of the room?

 

Options

  1. 25
  2. 24
  3. 28
  4. 30

 

Answer: Option D – 30

  1. Ramesh goes from his home to office on his scooter at a speed of 30 km/h and reaches 10 minutes late. If he travels at the speed of 40km/h, he reaches 10 minutes early. Find the distance betweeen his office and home.

 

  1. 30km
  2. 35km
  3. 40km
  4. 45 km

 

Answer: Option C – 40 km

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  1. The average strength of 15 members is 29.0. The average strength of the first 9 members is 18. The average strength of the last 5 members is 6.5. Find the average strength of 10th member?

 

Options

  1. 4.8
  2. 4.9
  3. 4.2
  4. 4.5

 

Answer: Question Wrong

 

  1. Amit drove to his office at 40km/h and reached 10minutes late, which is 10% of his desired time of travel. By what percentage should he increase his speed so as to be able to reach his office in time?

 

  1. 10%
  2. 12%
  3. 12.5%
  4. 8%

 

Answer: Option A – 10%

 

  1. X and Y are in a certain ratio. What would be added to both X and Y so that X and Y be in the ratio of a:b.
  1. \frac{a^{2} – b^{2}}{X + Y}
  2. \frac{bX – aY}{a – b}
  3. \frac{aX – bY}{a + b}
  4. \frac{Yb – aX}{a – b}

Answer – \frac{bX – aY}{a – b}

  1. What is the average (to the nearest integer) of all multiples of 3 and 5 between 23 and 97?

 

  1. 70
  2. 64
  3. 68
  4. 62

 

Answer – 62 (average is 60 so the nearest integer is 62)

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  1. If x ^{2} + y ^{2} = 14 and xy = 16, then which of the following options are correct?

 

  1. x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}+\sqrt{2}}{2}, y =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}-\sqrt{2}}{2}
  2. x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}-\sqrt{3}}{2} , y = \pm \frac{\sqrt{26}+\sqrt{3}}{2}
  3. x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}-\sqrt{5}}{2}, y  =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}+\sqrt{5}}{2}
  4. x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{13}-\sqrt{2}}{2}, y = x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{13}+\sqrt{2}}{2}

 

Answer: x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}+\sqrt{2}}{2}, y =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}-\sqrt{2}}{2}

 

  1. Study the following table and answer the question that follows:

 

Number of people (in hundreds) participating in the Annual Fair from six different towns over the years

 

Years201520162017201820192020
Towns
A4.25.16.34.45.86.2
B5.55.35.155.46.8
C4.56.26.55.95.44.9
D5.85.75.35.14.94.8
E66.15.95.35.55.7
F5.76.26.65.14.44.3

 

The number of people participating in the annual fair from town A in the year 2020 forms exactly what percentage of total number of people participating in the Annual Fair from that town over all the years together?

 

Answer: 19.375%

 

  1. When the first number is subtracted from the second number, we get 174. If 5\frac{15}{17}\% of the first number is 5\frac{5}{19}\% of the second number. Then find the sum of two numbers.

 

Answer: -174

 

  1. In how many years will a principal at a rate of 8% p.a simple interest become 3 times of the principal?

 

Answer : 25 years

 
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Quants

 

  1. Deepak wants to utilize his unused land and wants to cultivate some fruit bearing trees. He planted 616 apple trees, 770 banana trees and 1540 orange trees in an equal row of the same number of trees, and there should be only one type of tree in one row. Find out the minimum number of rows.

 

  1. 15
  2. 17
  3. 21
  4. 19

 

Answer: Option D – 19

 

  1. The daily wages of workers are Rs 100. Five workers can do work in 10 days. If you pay 20 more daily, they agree to do 25% more work daily. If the proposal is accepted, then the total amount that could be saved as:

 

  1. Rs 350
  2. Rs 280
  3. Rs 200
  4. Rs 300

 

Answer: Option C – Rs. 200

 

  1. What is the simplified value of \frac{0.3 + 0.4}{\left[ \left( 0.03 \right)^{2} + \left( 0.04 \right)^{2} \right]} * \overline{0.142857} ?

 

  1. 7
  2. 40
  3. 400
  4. 0.07

 

Answer: OptionB – 40

 

  1. Four years ago, the average age of  a father, mother and a son was 28 years. Three years ago the average age of the son and mother was 25 years. What is the present age of father?

 

  1. 40
  2. 48
  3. 96
  4. 56

Answer: Option A – 40

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  1. A car covers 3600km in 45 hours. The speed of a bus is 6km/h, more than 130% of the speed of the car. How much distance will be covered by the bus in 4\tfrac{1}{2} hours?

 

Options

  1. 495km
  2. 438 km
  3. 535 km
  4. 512km

 

Answer: Option A – 495 km

 

  1. A factory increased  its production of three wheelers from 8000 in 1999 to 92160 in 2002. The annual rate of growth of three wheelers is:-

 

  1. 7%
  2. 5%
  3. 9%
  4. 8%

 

Answer: Option B – 5% (Question wrong 92160 need to replace with 9216)

 

  1. A bank offers two different schemes at the same rate of investment. A woman chose scheme II to invest a sum of money but due to fall in interest rate from 13% to 12 ½ % , her yearly income diminished by Rs 104. Calculate the compound interest on the same amount for 2 years at the same rate if she invested in scheme I.

 

  1. Rs 5,757
  2. Rs 5,759.5
  3. Rs 5,559
  4. Rs 5, 700

 

Answer: Option B – 5759.52

 

  1. If any item was sold for Rs. 2000, the shopkeeper was in a loss of x%. The same item sold at Rs. 3000 made a profit of y%. What is the value of x and y respectively?
  1. 80, 20
  2. 70, 30
  3. 20, 80
  4. 30, 70

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Answer:

 

  1. Rohan, Mohan and Sohan decided to sell their TV, fridge and phone, respectively. The cost price of the TV was Rs. 12, 775and Rohan sold it for a profit of 12%. The cost price of the fridge was Rs 51,100 and Mohan earned a profit of 14% by selling it. If the cost price of the phone is equal to the selling price of the TV and Sohan suffered a loss equal to half the amount of profit gained by Mohan , then what is the selling price of the phone?

 

  1. Rs. 10,213
  2. Rs. 10,731
  3. Rs. 11,337
  4. Rs. 9,877

 

Answer: Option B – Rs. 10,731

 

10.There are two sections A and B in a school, 20 students of B shifted to A. It resulted in the strength of A Becoming twice the strength of B. If the 10 students shifts from A to B, The strength of A and B becomes equal, Determine the ratio of A and B Initially

 

  1. 5:2
  2. 5:4
  3. 4:5
  4. 5:3

 

Answer: Option B – 5:4

 

  1. The length of a room is 1.5 times its breadth. The cost of carpeting the room at Rs. 15m2 is Rs. 1,440 and the cost of painting the walls at the rate of Rs. 8m2 is Rs. 3,200. What is the sum of the dimensions of the room?

 

Options

  1. 25
  2. 24
  3. 28
  4. 30

 

Answer: Option D – 30

  1. Ramesh goes from his home to office on his scooter at a speed of 30 km/h and reaches 10 minutes late. If he travels at the speed of 40km/h, he reaches 10 minutes early. Find the distance betweeen his office and home.

 

  1. 30km
  2. 35km
  3. 40km
  4. 45 km

 

Answer: Option C – 40 km

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  1. The average strength of 15 members is 29.0. The average strength of the first 9 members is 18. The average strength of the last 5 members is 6.5. Find the average strength of 10th member?

 

Options

  1. 4.8
  2. 4.9
  3. 4.2
  4. 4.5

 

Answer: Question Wrong

 

  1. Amit drove to his office at 40km/h and reached 10minutes late, which is 10% of his desired time of travel. By what percentage should he increase his speed so as to be able to reach his office in time?

 

  1. 10%
  2. 12%
  3. 12.5%
  4. 8%

 

Answer: Option A – 10%

 

  1. X and Y are in a certain ratio. What would be added to both X and Y so that X and Y be in the ratio of a:b.
  1. \frac{a^{2} – b^{2}}{X + Y}
  2. \frac{bX – aY}{a – b}
  3. \frac{aX – bY}{a + b}
  4. \frac{Yb – aX}{a – b}

Answer – \frac{bX – aY}{a – b}

  1. What is the average (to the nearest integer) of all multiples of 3 and 5 between 23 and 97?

 

  1. 70
  2. 64
  3. 68
  4. 62

 

Answer – 62 (average is 60 so the nearest integer is 62)

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  1. If x ^{2} + y ^{2} = 14 and xy = 16, then which of the following options are correct?

 

  1. x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}+\sqrt{2}}{2}, y =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}-\sqrt{2}}{2}
  2. x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}-\sqrt{3}}{2} , y = \pm \frac{\sqrt{26}+\sqrt{3}}{2}
  3. x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}-\sqrt{5}}{2}, y  =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}+\sqrt{5}}{2}
  4. x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{13}-\sqrt{2}}{2}, y = x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{13}+\sqrt{2}}{2}

 

Answer: x =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}+\sqrt{2}}{2}, y =\pm \frac{\sqrt{26}-\sqrt{2}}{2}

 

  1. Study the following table and answer the question that follows:

 

Number of people (in hundreds) participating in the Annual Fair from six different towns over the years

 

Years201520162017201820192020
Towns
A4.25.16.34.45.86.2
B5.55.35.155.46.8
C4.56.26.55.95.44.9
D5.85.75.35.14.94.8
E66.15.95.35.55.7
F5.76.26.65.14.44.3

 

The number of people participating in the annual fair from town A in the year 2020 forms exactly what percentage of total number of people participating in the Annual Fair from that town over all the years together?

 

Answer: 19.375%

 

  1. When the first number is subtracted from the second number, we get 174. If 5\frac{15}{17}\% of the first number is 5\frac{5}{19}\% of the second number. Then find the sum of two numbers.

 

Answer: -174

 

  1. In how many years will a principal at a rate of 8% p.a simple interest become 3 times of the principal?

 

Answer : 25 years

 
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Verbal

Ques 1. Parts of the given sentence have been given as options. One of them contains a grammatical error. Select the option that has the error.

 

Our soldiers have to fight in an utterly fearless manner even at inhospitable terrain

 

Options

  1. Our soldiers have to fight
  2. in an utterly
  3. fearless manner
  4. even at inhospitable terrain

 

Answer:- even at inhospitable terrain

 

  1. Select the option in which the underlined idiom has been used appropriately.
  1. Beyond a certain limit, it will be difficult to stop investing in the project. The situation by then will be in for a penny sand out for a pound.
  2. Now that we have started working on the project report, we will have to finish it even if we have to stay up all night. As they say, in for a penny and in for a pound.
  3. Since we had already reached more than halfway close to the waterfall, although a little tired we decided to reach it somehow, In for a pound and in for a penny, after all.
  4. When Senorita Pvt. Ltd. was booming, Jim was in for a penny and in for a pound , that’s how casual he was.

 

Answer:- Beyond a certain limit, it will be difficult to stop investing in the project. The situation by then will be in for a penny sand out for a pound.

 

  1. Select the option that can be used as a one-word-substitute for the underlined part of sentence

 

Rohit is full of life and has a charismatic personality, everyone should have a friend like him.

 

Options

  1. Complacent
  2. Caustic
  3. Cunning
  4. Convivial

 

Answer:- Convivial

 

  1. Four idioms are given below, choose their sequence that would fill in the blanks and complete the text given here.

 

There is an election coming, and I have not decided who I am voting for. My favorite candidate made a speech that was completely _______. The candidate deftly ________ the journal around questions of his dubious background. I’m _________ between two candidates. I think the general public is feeling _______ due to the limited choice they have.

 

  1. Fenced with
  2. Over the fence
  3. Fenced in
  4. On the fence

 

Options

  1. 1342
  2. 1243
  3. 2143
  4. 2314

Answer:- 2143

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  1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

“You’re going to do great” Mom squeezed my knee, the goop on her lips catching white sunlight when she smiled.

A row of girls, four deep, marched by our BMW, their backpacks firmly secured to their slight shoulders with both straps, thick ponytails bobbing like blond plumes on Spartan helmets. “Mom, know. “I rolled my eyes, more for myself than at her was dangerously close to crying, to curling up in her arms while she ran her long pointy nails up and down my forearm until had goose bumps. “Tickle my arm used to beg when I was little, snuggling up to her on the couch.

“You’re going to be late!” She planted a kiss on my cheek that left a sticky coating of lip gloss. In return, she got a sullen new teenager “Good-bye.

That morning, thirty-five steps from the front door of school, I was still only in rehearsals for the role.

First period was homeroom, and like a huge dork was excited by this My middle school didn’t have bells or different teachers for different classes There were forty girls per grade, divided into two classrooms, and in that classroom, you were taught math, social studies, science religion, and English by the same teacher all year long, and if you were lucky, you got the one who wasn’t the nun (I was never lucky). The idea of a school where a bell rang every forty-one minutes, prompting you on to the next classroom, with a new teacher and a new concentration of students, made me feel like I was a guest star on ‘Saved by the bell or something’.

But the most exciting part of that first morning was English. Honors English, another distinction my old school never made, in which had secured a spot thanks to that brilliant 150-word description of my cat’s tragic demise I couldn’t wait to take notes in the bright green pen I’d bought at the school store Mt St Theresa’s made us write in pencil like babies, but Bradley didn’t care what you wrote in Didn’t care you took notes at all as long as you kept your grades up Bradley’s school colours were green and white, and I bought a pen the same shade as the basketball jerseys to display my new allegiance.

Honors English was a small class, only twelve students, and instead of desks, we got to sit at three long tables, pushed together to form the shape of a bracket. The teacher, Mr. Larson, was someone Mom would dismiss as hefty but those twenty extra pounds had resulted in a kind, full face squinty eyes, a slight arch to his upper lip that made him look like he was remembering some hilarious crack one of his buddies had made to him the night before over lukewarm Bud Lights. He wore faded pastel button-downs and had the kind of floppy, light brown hair that assured us it wasn’t too long ago that he was a prep school kid just like us and he, like, totally got it.

 

Question: Which of the following statements does NOT hold good as per the information given in the passage?

  1. The narrator was trying her best to adapt to her new environment and from the beginning, wanted to project herself as a loyal student of the new school
  2. The narrator was trying her best to remain calm and composed but within herself she was extremely nervous about starting a new phase of her life in an alien environment
  3. The narrator who was past her teens had attained maturity and craved for freedom which she did not get in her middle school and so was excited at the possibilities that Bradley offered
  4. The narrator belonged to a wealthy family which could afford her education in a posh school like St. Mt. Bradley which followed a modern concept of education.

 

Answer:- The narrator who was past her teens had attained maturity and craved for freedom which she did not get in her middle school and so was excited at the possibilities that Bradley offered

 

  1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

“You’re going to do great” Mom squeezed my knee, the goop on her lips catching white sunlight when she smiled.

A row of girls, four deep, marched by our BMW, their backpacks firmly secured to their slight shoulders with both straps, thick ponytails bobbing like blond plumes on Spartan helmets. “Mom, know. “I rolled my eyes, more for myself than she was dangerously close to crying, curling up in her arms while she ran her long pointy nails up and down my forearm until I had goosebumps. “Tickle my arm used to beg when I was little, snuggling up to her on the couch.

“You’re going to be late!” She planted a kiss on my cheek that left a sticky coating of lip gloss. In return, she got a sullen new teenager “Good-bye.

That morning, thirty-five steps from the front door of school, I was still only in rehearsals for the role.

First period was homeroom, and like a huge dork was excited by this My middle school didn’t have bells or different teachers for different classes There were forty girls per grade, divided into two classrooms, and in that classroom, you were taught math, social studies, science religion, and English by the same teacher all year long, and if you were lucky, you got the one who wasn’t the nun (I was never lucky). The idea of a school where a bell rang every forty-one minutes, prompting you on to the next classroom, with a new teacher and a new concentration of students, made me feel like I was a guest star on ‘Saved by the Bell or something

But the most exciting part of that first morning was English. Honors English, another distinction my old school never made, in which had secured a spot thanks to that brilliant 150-word description of my cat’s tragic demise I couldn’t wait to take notes in the bright green pen I’d bought at the school store Mt St Theresa’s made us write in pencil like babies, but Bradley didn’t care what you wrote in Didn’t care you took notes at all as long as you kept your grades up Bradley’s school colours were green and white, and I bought a pen the same shade as the basketball jerseys to display my new allegiance.

Honors English was a small class, only twelve students, and instead of desks, we got to sit at three long tables, pushed together to form the shape of a bracket. The teacher, Mr. Larson, was someone Mom would dismiss as hefty but those twenty extra pounds had resulted in a kind, full face squinty eyes, a slight arch to his upper lip that made him look like he was remembering some hilarious crack one of his buddies had made to him the night before over lukewarm Bud Lights. He wore faded pastel button-downs and had the kind of floppy, light brown hair that assured us it wasn’t too long ago that he was a prep school kid just like us and he, like, totally got it.

 

According to the passage, which of the following options is true?

 

Options

  1. The narrator’s old school allowed students subject-wise teachers only after middle school level and till then all subjects were taught by one single teacher.
  2. The narrator was allowed to take up Honors English in middle school only after she passed a written test where she had described a tragic death of her cat.
  3. The teachers at Bradley were  more formal as compared to the narrator’s previous school and that is the reason the students could relate with them.
  4. Bradley was a high school and offered more freedom to students in all aspects of their teaching learning process and allowed them to make choices of their own.

 

Answer:- The narrator was allowed to take up Honors English in middle school only after she passed a written test where she had described a tragic death of her cat.

 

  1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

“You’re going to do great” Mom squeezed my knee, the goop on her lips catching white sunlight when she smiled.

A row of girls, four deep, marched by our BMW, their backpacks firmly secured to their slight shoulders with both straps, thick ponytails bobbing like blond plumes on Spartan helmets. “Mom, know. “I rolled my eyes, more for myself than she was dangerously close to crying, curling up in her arms while she ran her long pointy nails up and down my forearm until I had goosebumps. “Tickle my arm used to beg when I was little, snuggling up to her on the couch.

“You’re going to be late!” She planted a kiss on my cheek that left a sticky coating of lip gloss. In return, she got a sullen new teenager “Good-bye.

That morning, thirty-five steps from the front door of school, I was still only in rehearsals for the role.

First period was homeroom, and like a huge dork was excited by this My middle school didn’t have bells or different teachers for different classes There were forty girls per grade, divided into two classrooms, and in that classroom, you were taught math, social studies, science religion, and English by the same teacher all year long, and if you were lucky, you got the one who wasn’t the nun (I was never lucky). The idea of a school where a bell rang every forty-one minutes, prompting you on to the next classroom, with a new teacher and a new concentration of students, made me feel like I was a guest star on ‘Saved by the Bell or something

But the most exciting part of that first morning was English. Honors English, another distinction my old school never made, in which had secured a spot thanks to that brilliant 150-word description of my cat’s tragic demise I couldn’t wait to take notes in the bright green pen I’d bought at the school store Mt St Theresa’s made us write in pencil like babies, but Bradley didn’t care what you wrote in Didn’t care you took notes at all as long as you kept your grades up Bradley’s school colours were green and white, and I bought a pen the same shade as the basketball jerseys to display my new allegiance.

Honors English was a small class, only twelve students, and instead of desks, we got to sit at three long tables, pushed together to form the shape of a bracket. The teacher, Mr. Larson, was someone Mom would dismiss as hefty but those twenty extra pounds had resulted in a kind, full face squinty eyes, a slight arch to his upper lip that made him look like he was remembering some hilarious crack one of his buddies had made to him the night before over lukewarm Bud Lights. He wore faded pastel button-downs and had the kind of floppy, light brown hair that assured us it wasn’t too long ago that he was a prep school kid just like us and he, like, totally got it.

 

How was Mt. St. Bradley different from the narrator’s middle school?

 

Options

  1. They did not care what the students used to write their notes, provided they used green and white pens or pencils.
  2. The new school gave more room to students in the selection of subjects as per their interests and had specialized facilitators.
  3. Honors English was taught in middle schools to all students irrespective of whether they liked it or not but Bradley’s it could be offered only by select students.
  4. Homeroom at middle school was led by a nun. Whereas at Bradley it was the most interesting period comprising of a small group of students led by a young and kind master.

 

Answer:- The new school gave more room to students in the selection of subjects as per their interests and had specialized facilitators.

 

  1. Select the most appropriate set of idioms that would fill in the blanks and complete the given passage.

 

I love (1) ______ the hidden gems of Europe. The places still (2) ______ and those destinations that (3) _____ if you are like me and would rather point to an island called Nisyro on a map and (4)______.

  1. 1. Hunting out 2. Waiting for crowds to descend 3. Capture your heart 4. Head there on a whim.
  2. 1. Fishing out 2. Waiting for crowds to descend 3. Appeal to your heart 4. Be on the movie.
  3. 1. To go on a hunting spree 2. Waiting for Godot 3. Touch your heart 4. Act on a whim.
  4. 1. Hunting out 2. Waiting for crowds to descend 3. Captured his heart 4. Head there on whim

 

Answer:- 1. Hunting out 2. Waiting for crowds to descend 3. Capture your heart 4. Head there on a whim.

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  1. The Constitution of India had conferred on women equal rights and (A)_____ political, social, educational and of employment with men. Because of (B)______ traditions, superstitions, exploitation and corruption, a majority of women are not allowed to enjoy equal rights and opportunities (C)______ on them. One of the major reasons for this state of affairs is the lack of literacy and (D)_______ among women. Education is the main instrument through which we can narrow down the prevailing inequality.

 

  1. (A)opportunities (B)oppressive (C)bestowed (D)awareness
  2. (A)hopes (B)mild (C)granted (D)attention
  3. (A)liberties (B)gloomy (C)donated (D) experience
  4. (A)favors (B)unjust (C)gifted (D)alertness

 

Answer:- (A)opportunities (B)oppressive (C)bestowed (D)awareness

 

  1. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent passage

 

  1. Like visual illusions, cognitive illusions are automatic, it is difficult or impossible to turn off the mental machinery that gives rise to them.
  2. They reveal to us some of the substructure that supports cognition and perception.
  3. Fortunately, many cognitive illusions can be overcome with training.
  4. Cognitive illusions are a window into the inner workings of the mind and brain.
  5. However, cognitive illusions often lead us to misperceive really and interpret the behavior of other people who comprise our social world, which lead to conflict and social suspicion.

 

Options

  1. ACECB
  2. BDAEC
  3. DABEC
  4. ABDEC

 

Answer:- DABEC

 

  1. Identify the error in the sentence.

We all want to be the best parent we can be for our children, but there is often conflicting advice on how to raise a kid who is confident, kind, and successful.

  1. Parent we can be for our children but
  2. A kid who is confident, kind and successful
  3. We all want to be the best
  4. But there is often conflicting advice on how to raise.

 

Answer:- Parent we can be for our children but

 

  1. For the four-sentence paragraph below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From P,Q, R and S, select the appropriate sentences that can fit S2 and S3, respectively. (Write your answer in the text box provided without any spaces e.g. XY or YZ)

S1 Approximately 4.6 billion years ago, our solar system was just a cloud of dust and gas known as a solar nebula

S2 _________

S3 _________

S4. Small particles drew together, bound by the force of gravity, into larger particles.

  1. With the sun beginning to form, the remaining material started to clump up

Q Eventually, a mysterious occurrence created a disturbance while asteroids were continuously bombarding the planet

  1. This left behind heavy, rocky materials that formed smaller terrestrial worlds like Earth.
  2. Gravity collapsed the material in on itself as it began to spin, condensing the matter and forming the sun in the center of the nebula.

 

Answer:- SP

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  1. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

 

Bullies are usually physically stronger than the people they bully. It can be described as a show off (1)______ to undermine or denigrate someone’s dignity to gain sadistic (2)______ out of it. What most people don’t know (3)_____ is that many people who show violent behavior and engage in bullying themselves, have low self esteem and are (4)_____ and anxious.

 

Blank 1. A. power  B. strength C. force D. vigour

Blank 2. A. Apathy B. Misery C. bliss D. pleasure

Blank 3. A. eventually B. moreover C. however D. yet

Blank 4. A. insecure B. calm C. Cool D. touchy

 

Options.

  1. 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D
  2. 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C
  3. 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A
  4. 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B

 

Answer:-1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A

 

  1. Each sentence in the given paragraph contains four underlined phrases. Three of these phrases have been correctly used, and one has been incorrectly used. Select the phrase from among the following option that best replaces the INCORRECT phrase in the sentence.

 

When Jhonny returned from the school he sought a secluded spot and removed the columns of newspaper from the inside of his clothing, where they had been artfully stuffed so as to successfully defend the areas likely for being attacked.

  1. Were artistically
  2. Was seeking
  3. Likely to be
  4. From within

 

Answer:- Likely to be

 

  1. Select the most appropriate set of idioms that would fill in the blanks and complete the given passage:

 

If you want to be rich and successful, you must be ambitious and a dreamer but at the same time you cannot afford to (1)____ without fortifying them with strong pillars. Today the world needs young, energetic and dynamic people to conduct business successfully. You need to be free of attachments if you wish to (2)____. You must remember that it’s (3)______ world out there and you’re going to have to (4)_____ quite a lot. Along with your grit and determination you need to be flexible and ready to take advantage of anything that comes your way.

 

  1. (1)live in an ivory tower, (2)strike it down, (3)every dog has his day, (4)sweat it out
  2. (1)a troglodytes world, (2)strike it big, (3)work like a dog, (4)sweat and slog
  3. (1)build castles in the air, (2)strike it rich, (3)a dog eat dog, (4)sweat and slog
  4. (1)build castles in the air, (2)make it to the top, (3)a dog fight, (4)toil and labour

 

Answer:- (1)build castles in the air, (2)strike it rich, (3)a dog eat dog, (4)sweat and slog

 

  1. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks in the given passage

There are a number of reasons why many of us (1)______ a budget. Many of these reasons are (2)_____ false assumptions or myths.

  1. (1)  does not create or live by (2) base on
  2. (1) do not create or live on (2) basing on
  3. (1)does not create or live by (2) based on
  4. (1) do not create or live by (2) based on

 

Answer:- (1) do not create or live by (2) based on

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  1. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent passage
  1. Their rich, complex culture reached a high point in the Mediterranean Middle Ages.
  2. For more than three centuries in Medieval Soain, Muslims, Jews, and Christians lived together and prospered in a thriving multicultural civilisation.
  3. However, larger forces in conquest of land and power brought about puritanical judgements, absolutism, and religious extremism.
  4. Here, remarkable individuals of different faiths made lasting contributions in such areas as poetry, art, architecture science, agriculture, medicine, and engineering and even hydraulic technology.
  5. The conflict they triggered extinguished the shared learning that once flourished in this enlightened land.
  1. DBCEA
  2. ABCDE
  3. BDACE
  4. EDABC

 

Answer:- BDACE

 

  1. For the four-sentence (S1 to S4) paragraph below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From P, Q, R and S, select the appropriate sentences for S2 and S3,

 

S1. An organization’’s culture defines the proper way to behave within the organisation

S2. ____________________

S3. ____________________

S4. Leaders in successful companies communicate their cultural identities to employees as well as prospective new hires.

 

  1. Mergers and acquisitions are fraught with cultural issues.

Q For example, regional cultures often differ from the overall culture that top leadership tries to instill.

  1. This culture consists of shared beliefs and values established by leaders and then communicated and reinforced through yarious methods.
  2. These common beliefs and values ultimately shape employee perceptions, behaviours, and understanding.

 

  1. RS
  2. QS
  3. SR
  4. RP

 

Answer: RS

 

  1. Choose the correct word to fill the blank in the sentence.

 

The EV and IA are examples of _______fields of study.

 

  1. Nasient
  2. Nascent
  3. Nassent
  4. Nasent

 

Answer: Nascent

 

  1. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks in the given passage

As the pandemic rolls on and millions around the world face months of social isolation, gaming (1) ______ lifeline. Those new players may keep on gaming  (2)________ to socialise in person, too.

  1. (1) continues to be a surprise (2) after even they’re allowed.
  2. (1) continue to be a surprising (2) after even they’re allowed
  3. (1)continues to be a surprise (2) even after their allowed
  4. (1) continues to be surprising (2) even after they’re allowed

 

Answer:- (1) continues to be surprising (2) even after they’re allowed

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  1. Given below a paragraph with five sentences, which are presented in a jumbled order. Write down the best order (eg. ABCDE), which would be a unified, meaningful and coherent paragraph.

 

  1. Its hands were sufficiently free to allow a precision grip, in which the tips of the fingers and thumb can be pressed together, allowing fine manipulation- something often assumed to be exclusive to toolmaking humans.
  2. The free hands of Oreopithecus were not as far as we know employed in making tools thereby refining planning depth swiftly followed by the conquest of the earth.
  3. Bipedality was not the first step in some progressive path of transformation between Ape and Angel for Oreopithecus, an extinct ape but a trait as individual as any other variety of ape locomotion.
  4. The absent features of the trait marked as a non-evolutionary step and did not dave Oreopithecus which remained confined to its island home where it quietly became extinct.
  5. Oreopithecus was a very distinct cousin of hominins, not an ancestor and its bipedality was not a harbinger of technology, holding babies close to its chest or anything else.

 

Answer:- CEABD

 

22.

 

  1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:-

 

In the time it takes you to read the sentence, the global building industry will have poured more than 19,000 bathtubs of concrete. By the time you are halfway through this article the volume would fill the Albert Hall and spill out into Hyde Park In a day it would be almost the sure of China’s Three Gorges Dam. In a single year, there is enough to patio over every hill, dale, nook and cranny in England

 

After water, concrete is the most widely used substance on Earth If the cement industry were a country it would be the third largest carbon dioxide emiter in the world with up to 2.8 bn tonnes, surpassed only by China and the US.

 

The material is the foundation of modern development, putting roofs over the heads of billions, fortifying our defences against natural disasters and providing a structure for heathcare, education, transport, energy and industry.

 

Concrete is how we try to tame nature. Our slabs protect us from the elements. They keep the rain from our heads the cold from our bones and the mud from our feet. But they aho entomb vast tracts of fertile soil, constipate rivers, choke habitats and-acting as a rock hard second skin- desensitise us from what is happening outside our urban fortresses.

 

Our blue and green world is becoming greyer by the second. By one calcuation we may have already passed the point where concrete outweighs the combined carbon mass of every tree bush and shrub on the planet. Our built environment is in these terms, outgrowing the naturl one. Unike the natural world, however, does not actually grow. Instead its chef quality is to harden and then degrade, extremely slowly

All

the plastic produced over the past 60 years amounts to 8 bn tonnes. The cement industry pumps out more than that every two years. But though the problem is bigger than plastic, it is generally seen as less severe. Concrete is not derived from fossil fuels. It is not being found in the stomach of whales and seagulls. Doctors aren’t discovering traces of it in our blood Nor do we see it tangled in oak trees or contributing to subterranean. fatbergs. We know where we are with concrete. Or to be more precise, we know where it is going: nowhere Which is exactly why we have come to rely on it.

 

This solidify, of course, is what human kind yearns for. Concrete is beloved for its weight and endurance. That is why it serves as the foundation of modern life holding time, nature, the elements and entropy at bay. When combined with steel is the material that ensures our dames don’t burst our towr blocks don’t fall, our roads don’t buckle and our electricity grid  remains connected.

 

Concrete is used to tame the vaganes of nature in the habitat we choose to live in. Based on the statement choose the following that is untrue.

  1. We humans choose to inhibit inhospitable habitats.
  2. Nature is cathartic and the earth is a violent place.
  3. It disintegrates very slowly and produces with a  strong tenement which can be injabited by the humans.
  4. It is the preferred technology to provide highly durable and tested material for use in all-round construction activity.

 

Answer:- We humans choose to inhibit inhospitable habitats.

 

  1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:-

 

In the time it takes you to read the sentence, the global building industry will have poured more than 19,000 bathtubs of concrete. By the time you are halfway through this article the volume would fill the Albert Hall and spill out into Hyde Park In a day it would be almost the sure of China’s Three Gorges Dam. In a single year, there is enough to patio over every hill, dale, nook and cranny in England

 

After water, concrete is the most widely used substance on Earth If the cement industry were a country it would be the third largest carbon dioxide emiter in the world with up to 2.8 bn tonnes, surpassed only by China and the US.

 

The material is the foundation of modern development, putting roofs over the heads of billions, fortifying our defences against natural disasters and providing a structure for heathcare, education, transport, energy and industry.

 

Concrete is how we try to tame nature. Our slabs protect us from the elements. They keep the rain from our heads the cold from our bones and the mud from our feet. But they aho entomb vast tracts of fertile soil, constipate rivers, choke habitats and-acting as a rock hard second skin- desensitise us from what is happening outside our urban fortresses.

 

Our blue and green world is becoming greyer by the second. By one calcuation we may have already passed the point where concrete outweighs the combined carbon mass of every tree bush and shrub on the planet. Our built environment is in these terms, outgrowing the naturl one. Unike the natural world, however, does not actually grow. Instead its chef quality is to harden and then degrade, extremely slowly

All the plastic produced over the past 60 years amounts to 8 bn tonnes. The cement industry pumps out more than that every two years. But though the problem is bigger than plastic, it is generally seen as less severe. Concrete is not derived from fossil fuels. It is not being found in the stomach of whales and seagulls. Doctors aren’t discovering traces of it in our blood Nor do we see it tangled in oak trees or contributing to subterranean. fatbergs. We know where we are with concrete. Or to be more precise, we know where it is going: nowhere Which is exactly why we have come to rely on it.

 

This solidify, of course, is what human kind yearns for. Concrete is beloved for its weight and endurance. That is why it serves as the foundation of modern life holding time, nature, the elements and entropy at bay. When combined with steel is the material that ensures our dames don’t burst our towr blocks don’t fall, our roads don’t buckle and our electricity grid  remains connected.

 

Between the probable causes, which of the following is likely to have a more proximal effect on global warming?

  1. Plastic, ssince it has already invaded out blood and alimentary canals of the world’s fauna.
  2. The degradation of the ecosystem as a consequence of human habitation, with not enough green cover remaining on the face of the planet to consume the excess of CO2?
  3. Concrete, since it has probably outstripped the carbon footprints of the world’s flora.
  4. The load of the flora and fauna with their tremendous carbon footprints,

 

Answer:- Concrete, since it has probably outstripped the carbon footprints of the world’s flora.

 

  1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:-

 

In the time it takes you to read the sentence, the global building industry will have poured more than 19,000 bathtubs of concrete. By the time you are halfway through this article the volume would fill the Albert Hall and spill out into Hyde Park In a day it would be almost the sure of China’s Three Gorges Dam. In a single year, there is enough to patio over every hill, dale, nook and cranny in England

 

After water, concrete is the most widely used substance on Earth If the cement industry were a country it would be the third largest carbon dioxide emiter in the world with up to 2.8 bn tonnes, surpassed only by China and the US.

 

The material is the foundation of modern development, putting roofs over the heads of billions, fortifying our defences against natural disasters and providing a structure for heathcare, education, transport, energy and industry.

 

Concrete is how we try to tame nature. Our slabs protect us from the elements. They keep the rain from our heads the cold from our bones and the mud from our feet. But they aho entomb vast tracts of fertile soil, constipate rivers, choke habitats and-acting as a rock hard second skin- desensitise us from what is happening outside our urban fortresses.

 

Our blue and green world is becoming greyer by the second. By one calcuation we may have already passed the point where concrete outweighs the combined carbon mass of every tree bush and shrub on the planet. Our built environment is in these terms, outgrowing the naturl one. Unike the natural world, however, does not actually grow. Instead its chef quality is to harden and then degrade, extremely slowly

All the plastic produced over the past 60 years amounts to 8 bn tonnes. The cement industry pumps out more than that every two years. But though the problem is bigger than plastic, it is generally seen as less severe. Concrete is not derived from fossil fuels. It is not being found in the stomach of whales and seagulls. Doctors aren’t discovering traces of it in our blood Nor do we see it tangled in oak trees or contributing to subterranean. fatbergs. We know where we are with concrete. Or to be more precise, we know where it is going: nowhere Which is exactly why we have come to rely on it.

 

This solidify, of course, is what human kind yearns for. Concrete is beloved for its weight and endurance. That is why it serves as the foundation of modern life holding time, nature, the elements and entropy at bay. When combined with steel is the material that ensures our dames don’t burst our tower blocks don’t fall, our roads don’t buckle and our electricity grid  remains connected.

 

The earth’s atmosphere and oceans are becoming hotter every year. Find the incorrect answer in the options based on this statement.

  1. It is regarded as a spinoff of the earth’s polar shift which is not due, with cataclysmic outcomes for humanity, though life on earth will continue.
  2. It is a product of makind’s unsustainable consumption of the earth’s resources, burning of fossil fuels and no strategies to recycle, renew and reuse scarce resources.
  3. There is lesser green cover to neutralise the greenhouse gasses which absorb heat and radiation, causing the earth to get warmer with each passing year.
  4. A huge number of volcanic eruptions have spewed billions of tonnes of smoke and ash in the atmosphere giving rise to unprecedented climatic aberrations on earth.

 

Answer:- A huge number of volcanic eruptions have spewed billions of tonnes of smoke and ash in the atmosphere giving rise to unprecedented climatic aberrations on earth.

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Verbal

Question 1. Identify the error in the sentence:

The explosion in music consumption over the last century has made ‘what you listen’ an important personality construct.

  1. has made ‘what you listen’
  2. an important personality construct.
  3. consumption over the last century
  4. The explosion in music

Answer – has made ‘what you listen’ 

Question 2. Each sentence in the given paragraph contains four underlined phrases. Three of these phrases have been correctly used, and one has been incorrectly used. Select the phrase from among the following options that best replaces the INCORRECT phrase in the sentence.

The traditional craftsmen don’t have access to a local manufacturing base, funds, design inputs and market which have brought our craftsmen and our traditional arts and crafts on the brink of extinction.

  1. Has brought
  2. Designs to input
  3. Towards a brink
  4. Excess to the

Answer – Has brought

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Question 3. Parts of the given sentence have been given as options. One of them contains a grammatical error. Select the option that has the error.

The major impact of drug abuse is on the brain, which consequentially affect every other aspect of life of the person addicted to drugs.

  1. Is on the brain, which consequentially
  2. of the person addicted to drugs.
  3. The major impact of drug abuse
  4. every other aspect of life

Answer – Is on the brain, which consequentially

Question 4. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate options to fill in the blank.

What is more common in a poorly (A) _________ home is a vague constellation of symptoms described as the sick-building syndrome. It is (B)________by a general feeling of malaise, headache, dizziness and irritation of mucous membranes. It may also be (C)_____by nausea, itching, aches pains and depression. Sick-building syndrome is becoming (D) _______ in big cities with small houses, which are generally over-furnished.

  1. (A)aired (B)outlined (C) encouraged (D) familiar
  2. (A)open (B) featured (C) assisted (D) casual
  3. (A) ventilated (B) featured (C)assisted (D) casual
  4. (A) stuffy (B) informed (C)maintained (D) natural

Answer – (A) ventilated (B) featured (C)assisted (D) casual

Question 5. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate options to fill in the blank.

Tai Chi which originated in China, is now widely used for physical and (1)______ fitness worldwide. It is an ancient practice that (2) ________ martial arts with meditation. It aims at (3) ________ mind and body into sync with rhythmic practice. Since it works on both mind and body, it leads to (4) ________ for physical as well as mental health.

Blank (1) A. intellectual, B. social, C. mental, D. psychological

Blank (2) A. mixes, B. associates, C. joins, D. combines

Blank (3) A. bringing, B. taking, C. leading, D. carrying

Blank (4) A. profits, B. benefits, C. advantages, D. perks

  1. (1)-B, (2)-D, (3)-C, (4)-B
  2. (1)-D, (2)-A, (3)-B, (4)-C
  3. (1)-C, (2)-B, (3)-B, (4)-D
  4. (1)-C, (2)-D, (3)-A, (4)-B

Answer – (1)-C, (2)-D, (3)-A, (4)-B

Question 6. Select the most appropriate set of idioms that would fill in the blanks and complete the given passage.

Life is never a linear line but a curve. It’s full of (1)__________. When faced with critical moments. It is better to switch off from the problem for some time and relax. Such an approach will help you think of solutions with greater clarity. Of course, you will still need to (2)_______ from time to time,but you will also agree that (3) _________. There is no need to panic and worry in anticipating that things may go wrong in life. It’s always better to wait and (4) _______ when you come to it.

  1. 1. Round the bends 2. Straighten things out 3. The world will not end in a day 4. Cross the Rubicon when it comes.
  2. 1. Ups and downs 2. Straighten things out 3. Heavens are not falling 4. Cross the bridge when you come to it
  3. 1. Uphill and down dale 2. Put your cards on the table 3. Heavens are falling 4. Cross the bridge when you come to it
  4. 1. Twists and turns 2. Iron out matters 3. Heavens will not fall 4. Cross the river when you reach the shore.

Answer: 1. Ups and downs 2. Straighten things out 3. Heavens are not falling 4. Cross the bridge when you come to it

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Question 7. Select the option in which the underlined idiom has been used appropriately

  1. Mr. Sawant is always palming on the least interesting jobs to his assistant even though they are assigned to him.
  2. The fraudulent company sold fake gold and tried to palm off them as genuine, however, some aware customers reported it to the police.
  3. Do not try to palm off your leftovers onto my sister, we do not appreciate it.
  4. The most successful dealers are those who always palm off their quality products to their customers.

Answer – The fraudulent company sold fake gold and tried to palm off them as genuine, however, some aware customers reported it to the police.

Question 8. Select the most appropriate set of idioms that would fill in the blanks and complete the given passage.

Mrinal is a total travel addict. One can say he (1) _____ travel. He loves exploring new places. Each year he (2) ______ for a new destination. Islands and sea hold a special appeal for him but he tires quickly of lazy days in the sand and soon he develops (3) ________ and finds himself on the move to look for something different. The unique island escapes have lots to offer him. Whether it is wildlife exploration or ancient monuments or a (4) _______, he finds every experience very exhilarating and immersive. He loves to share his experiences so that he can tempt others.

  1. 1. Stuff of dreams, 2. Fly in and out, 3. Tickle in the feet, 4. Slice of cake
  2. 1. Eats, sleeps and drinks , 2. Sets course, 3. Itchy feet, 4. Slice of culture
  3. 1. Ready to go the extra mile drinks , 2. Set sail for, 3. Ants in his pants, 4. Taste of culture
  4. 1. Eats, sleeps and drinks,  2. Set off, 3. Achilles heels, 4. Immersive culture

Answer – 1. Eats, sleeps and drinks , 2. Sets course, 3. Itchy feet, 4. Slice of culture

Question 9 – Select the most appropriate options to fill in the blanks in the given passage.

With coronavirus cases (1)_________ America and abroad, travelers with a United States passport remain grounded. To date, just nine countries(2)_______Americans without restrictions.

  1. (1)continues to spike in (2) are opening to
  2. (1) continuing to spike in (2) is open to
  3. (1) continuing to spile in (2)are open for
  4. (1)continuing to spike in (2) are open to

Answer – (1)continuing to spike in (2) are open to

Question 10 – Four idioms are given below. Choose their sequence that would fill in the blanks and complete the text given here.

A ___________ salesman persuaded my mother to buy a new washing machine that connects to the internet, although the one she had was fine. Now my mother is a _________ but even could not learn how to operate it. Most of the time, it is an old person who becomes a ______ to these tech-savvy salesman. We tried all means to get the washing machine going but it’s really complicated and there seems to be no _______ in sight.

  1. Silver surfer
  2. Silver bullet
  3. Silver-tongued
  4. Sitting duck
  1. 3142
  2. 1243
  3. 1423
  4. 2413

Answer – 3142

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Question 11 – Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentence in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

  1.  In the 19th century, for instance, out-of-body experiences became a popular topic and were eagerly diagnosed by early psychical researchers.
  2. Some consist of little more than a fleeting feeling that body and mind have come loose.
  3. Either way, out of body experiences have fascinated humanity for centuries, entering folklore, spiritual belief and mythology.
  4. While others recount tales of floating far from the person’s physical body and traveling to otherworldly plains.
  5. Reports of out-of-body experiences vary.
  1. BCDEA
  2. DCAEB
  3. EBDCA
  4. AEBDC

Answer – AEBDC

Question 12 – For the four sentence (S1-S4) paragraph below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From P, Q, R, S , select the appropriate sentences for S2-S3, respectively.

S1. Culture is the characteristics and knowledge of a particular group of people, encompassing language, religion, cuisine, social habits, music and arts.

S2: ________

S3: ________

S4: Many countries, such as France, Italy, Germany, the US, India, Russia and China are noted for their rich cultures.

  1. Today, the influences of Western culture can be seen in almost every country in the world.
  2. Thus, culture can be seen as the growth of a group identity fostered by social patterns unique to the group.
  3. As a result, Hinduism became a major driver of culture in India.
  4. The Center for Advanced Research on Language Acquisition goes a step further, defining culture as a shared pattern of behaviors and interactions, cognitive constructs and understanding that are learned by socialization.
  5. SP
  6. PQ
  7. RP
  8. SQ

Answer – SQ

Question 13 – Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks in the given sentence.

One must face all ___________ of life with equanimity.

  1. Vicissitudes
  2. Vicissittudes
  3. Viccisitudes
  4. Vicisitudes

Answer – Vicissitudes

Question 14 – Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks in the given passage.

True happiness comes from (1)______ you love and who love you in return. If the people you surround yourself with are bringing you down(2)_____trim the fat.

  1. (1)surrounding yourself with people whom (2) then it’s time to
  2. (1) surround yourself with people whom (2) then it’s time to
  3. (1) surrounding yourself with people whom (2) then it’s time you
  4. (1) surrounding yourself around people whom (2) then it’s time

Answer – (1) surrounding yourself with people whom (2) then it’s time you

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Question 15 – Select the option that can be used as a one word substitute for the underlined part of the sentence.

The romantic complex situation or mix up happened when Rahul met my landlords assuming they were my parents.

  1. Arsenal
  2. Fastidious
  3. Imbroglio
  4. embargo

Answer – imbroglio

Question 16 – Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

  1. (where a sperm cell is specifically chosen because of its sex chromosomes)
  2. The law was amended in 2003 to bring the technique of preconception sex selection within the ambit of the Act
  3. The law as it stands not only prohibits determination and disclosure of the sex of the foetus but also bans advertisments related to preconception and prenatal determination of sex.
  4. The law first came into force in 1996 as the Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act, 1994, in response to the falling sex ratio and fears that ultrasound technologies were being used to detremine the sex of the foetus.
  5. Essentially, the banning practices where medical practitioners try to influence the sex of the child before conception by using techniques such as sperm sorting.
  1. BDACE
  2. DCBAE
  3. DBEAC
  4. BADCE

Answer:  DCBAE

Question 17 – Given below is a paragraph with five sentences, which are presented in a jumbled order. Write down the best order (e.g. ABCDE) which would form a meaningful, unified and coherent paragraph.

  1. It might be due to the US society’s national self-image that is closely linked to the mythology of immigration, to ethnic identity as a search for validating origins.
  2. Diasporas and homelands are locked in peculiar, dialectical relationships- the South Asian diaspora looks to the sub-continent as an anchor for identity formation, however mythical and uncomfortable it might be and cultural producers cannot ignore this relationship, however problematic.
  3. British Asian artists opt for an unsentimental, sometimes even comical, treatment of these issues, while South Asian American writers and filmmakers respond in more somber fashion, perhaps reflecting the sacred status of roots search in North American Culture.
  4. As ‘return of native’ is a prevalent theme in post-colonial literature; South Asian Atlantic narratives present  India, Pakistan and Bangladesh as a powerful force for members of the diaspora.
  5. These ‘roots’ visits represent a rite of passage as much for ‘ethnic’ writers and filmmakers, creatively and intellectually, as for their fictionalized characters in an emotional and spiritual sense-such journeys occupy complex psychological ground.

Answer –  DBECA

Question 18 – For the four sentence paragraph below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From P,Q,R and S, select the appropriate sentences that can fit S2 and S3 respectively. While your answer in the text box provided without any spaces e.g. XY or YZ.

S1. The history of paper is inextricably linked with that of culture and science.

S2

S3

S4. The information had to be set on a lightweight and durable medium that was easily transportable.

  1. Watermarking involved using metal wires to add decorations to paper.

Q.Humans had an urgent need to communicate certain information to each other in written form.

  1. The Japanese immediately learned papermaking techniques and began using pulp derived from mulberry bark to produce this precious material themselves.
  2. The spark that set off the invention of paper was simple but extremely significant.

Answer – SQ

Question 19 – Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

I drop Khasnobis at the Park Hotel – I suspect he has a booze session there – and dart quickly out of the heart of Calcutta. The Salt Lake City is on the right side of a alodrous road leading to the Calcutta airport. This new township is relatively clean and its roads are broad – Bengal’s Chief Minister lives here – but it lacks the tang of old Calcutta. It has some bizarre buildings. My guest house, for instance, is an architectural flimflam. One first walks into a cavernous hall painted pastel blue. A concrete carbuncle erupts right at the centre of its otherwise flat roof. Its cavity is painted baby pink. Mock Corinthian pilasters protrude from its walls. At the end of the hall is a flight of stairs, which leads to a set of rooms with ornate wooden doors. One of the rooms is mine.

My room usually smells dank, but today it is prussic acid. I call the caretaker.

“What is this smell?”

He wrinkles his nose and sniffs the air.

“It is room freshener, sir.” He fishes out a container from one of the side cupboards and hands it over to me. It is indeed the room freshner. It assures you of a redolence of wild roses.

“I was happy with dank, friend”.

“Sir?”

“Never mind. Is there another room vacant? I can’t sleep in this room.”

The caretaker wrings his hands. “No room is vacant on this floor sir. I could ask one of the guests to swap his room with yours.”

“No, I don’t want that. What about the rooms on the top floor?”

“We have two rooms on the top floor, sir. One of them is vacant. But it is not air- conditioned.”

“I don’t mind sleeping there. Kindly get the roon ready for me.”

The night is breezy and pleasant. I light up a mosquito repellent and, in the whirring comfort of the ceiling fan, lapse into a delicious sleep.

I wake up with a start, sweating all over. The ceiling fan has ceased whirring. The power must have gone off. The mosquito coil eyes me with an orange glow. Where is Ghosh sleeping now? Does he have a ceiling fan in his room? Or a mosquito coil? Does he have a room at all? Is he sleeping in the open? As I stand up and walk towards the window the ceiling fan begins its drone. The light that comes from a window a few yards across from mine is not strong enough to illuminate my room but bright enough to show me what is going on in that room. I silently draw the curtains and get back to bed. I am not a voyeur.

Based on the information given in the passage about the narrator’s place of accommodation, find out the option that is erroneous.

Options

  1. The rooms with ornate wooden doors were not on the topmost floor of the guest house and were air-conditioned and occupied.
  2. The guest house opens into a huge hall painted in pastel blue which has a false ceiling at the center of the room done in baby pink.
  3. The single storey guest house, located in old calcutta, is an example of bizarre buildings in the area and is itself a sham of architectural design.
  4. The rectangular columns sticking out from the walls in the main hall were more examples of the architectural hypocrisy of the building.

Answer – The rooms with ornate wooden doors were not on the topmost floor of the guest house and were air-conditioned and occupied.

Question 20 – According to the passage, which of the following options is true?

  1. The narrator gets back to bed because he respects people’s privacy and did not want to snoop on others unwatched.
  2. The narrator was not ready to be discovered snooping into other’s privacy and there was a risk of people seeing him.
  3. The narrator knew at any moment the power would come back and in bright lights there was always a chance that people outside would see him.
  4. The narrator was disgusted with people’s lack of civic sense when he follows the light coming from another window and decides to get to bed.

Answer – The narrator gets back to bed because he respects people’s privacy and did not want to snoop on others unwatched.

Question 21 – Which of the following statements DOES NOT hold good as per the information given in the passage?

  1. On other days too the narrator’s room was not a comfortable one as it was unpleasantly damp and unaired.
  2. The narrator requests the caretaker to shift his room as he was unable to bear the distinctive smell which had filled the air.
  3. When the narrator questions the caretaker, he takes out a bottle of room freshener from his uniform pocket and tells him that this was the cause of the obnoxious smell in the room.
  4. The caretaker is submissive to the complaints raised by the narrator and offers to help him out even though he has several limitations in the present set up.

Answer – 

Question 22 – Read the passage and answer the question:

When we arrive at the crucial tension at the heart of gender identity politics, and one that most of its proponents either haven’t noticed, or choose to ignore because it can only be resolved by rejecting some of the key tenets of the doctrine.

Many people justifiably assume that the word ‘transgender’ is synonymous with ‘transesxual’, and means something like : having dysphoria and distress about your sexed body, and having a desire to alter that body to make it more closely resemble the body of opposite sex. But according to the current terminology of gender identity politics, being transgender has nothing to do with a desire to change your sexed body. What it means to be trasngender is that your innate gender identity does not match the gender you were assigned at birth. This might be the case even if you are perfectly happy and content in the boy you possess. You are transgender simply of you identify as one gender, but socially have been perceived as another.

It is a key tenet of the doctrine that the vast majority of people can be described as ‘cisgender’, which means that our innate gender identity matches the one we were assigned at birth. But as we have seen, if gender identity is a spectrum, then we are all non-binary, because none of us inhabits the points represented by the ends of that spectrum. Every single one of us will exist at some unique point along that spectrum, determined by the individual and idiosyncratic nature of our own particular identity, and our own subjective experience of gender. Given that, it’s not clear how anybody ever could be cisgender. None of us was assigned our correct gender identity at birth, for how could we possibly have been?

Once we recognise that the number of gender identities is potentially infinite, we are forced to concede that nobody is deep down cisgender, because nobody is assigned the correct gender identity at birth. In fact, none of us was assigned a gender identity at birth at all. We were placed into one of two sex classes on the basis of our potential reproductive function, determined by our external genitals. We were then raised in accordance with the socially prescribed gender norms for people of that sex. We are all educated and inculcated into one of two roles, long before we are able to express our beliefs about our innate gender identity, or to determine for ourselves the precise point at which we fall on the gender continuum. So defining transgender people as those who at birth were not assigned the correct place on the gender spectrum has the implication that every single one of us is transgender; there are no cisgender people.

The logical conclusion of all this is: if gender is a spectrum, not a binary, then everyone is trans. Or alternatively, there are no trans people. Either way, this a profoundly unsatisfactory conclusion, and one that serves both to obscure the reality of female oppression, as well as to erase and invalidate the experiences of transsexual people.

The way to avoid this conclusion is to realize that gender is not a spectrum. It’s not a spectrum, because it’s not an innate, internal essence or property. Gender is not a fact about persons that we must take as fixed and essential, and then build our social institutions around that fact. Gender is socially constructed all the way through, an externally imposed hierarchy, with two classes, occupying two value positions: male over female, man over woman, masculinity over femininity.

The truth of the spectrum analogy lies in the fact that conformity to one’s place in the hierarchy, and to the roles it assigns to people, will vary from person to person. The solution is not to reify gender by insisting on ever more gender categories that define the complexity of human personality in rigid and essentialist ways. The solution is to abolish gender altogether. We do not need gender. We would be better off without it. Gender as a hierarchy with two positions operates to naturalise and perpetuate the subordination of female people to male people, and constrains the development of individuals of both sexes. Reconceiving of gender as an identity spectrum represents no improvement.The solution to an oppressive system that puts people into pink and blue boxes is not to create more and more boxes that are any colour but blue or pink. The solution is to tear down the boxes altogether.

Which statement is true among the four options?

  1. Social structures around the globe have become amorphous and porous, making it very easy for the average citizen to express his/her beliefs about their distinctive gender identity.
  2. Family and society mould us, educate us and inculcate progeny into one of two roles. As infants, expression of disparate attractions, identity or beliefs is non-existent.
  3. From ancient times, Indian government has been inclusive about all manner of sexual identity and our relifious texts are replete with people professing vaious identities.
  4. The author is a leader of social mores and religion, enabling her to understand the vicissitudes among human beings.

Question 23 – Though Nature dictates biology, gender politics is social. Which option correctly reflects this truism?

  1. The rules of natural law are intrinsic to humans. But human nature and positive law may be independent of it. Society and governments want to legislate, and not necessarily accept man’s inherent rights.
  2. It is in the best interest of natural order that men and women follow the ancient rule of hunter-gatherer and nurturer. There is a higher order and meaning in this division of labour, and society should follow it.
  3. Though biology and birth are factual and fixed, a result of evolution or God, gender politics is a socially constructed pyramid, imposed by the stronger or richer, that says man occupies a higher position and has power over women.
  4. Power play and politics manipulates the economically or socially weak for political benefit routinely. Toxic ideas of gender shape social identity and political thought. In this, Nature is left far behind, an expedient accomplice.

Question 24 – Which is the simplest way to describe a transgender, according to the author?

Options

  1. The description is about people who enjoy the freedom to exercise their individual choices in any way.
  2. The description is about outcasts and outliers in society, who simply cannot fit into the normal social dynamics.
  3. It describes a person who feels wronged by parents and society and straightjacketed into a persona they are not.
  4. The description is about the instinctual personality at a person discovered as antithetical to what was originally and natally dispensed.

Question 25 – Would you infer from the passage that ‘cisgender’ humans occupy at least half of the population?

Options

  1. It is conjectured that there are some who are comfortable in their personalities/skin, possibly identify wholly with a social or biological construct and accept the cisgender theory to describe themselves.
  2. Almost all humans are not hundred percent classically masculine or feminine but have inimitable crossover personality traits. E.g. a man may be ultra sensitive, or a lady a highly reasonable stoic. This implies we are unique and non binary, not a true cisgender
  3. If man considers himself an animal, albeit an evolved one, then a clear male-female gender universe makes an equitable universe, where different labels do not have any meaning.
  4. Our  subjective experience about gender influences the adult we will eventually become, regardless of what we were called at birth. It is a choice of some societies, and thus cisgender offers clarity place and position.

Logical

Question 1 – 

Identify the cluster which does not belong to the following series:-

CDF, GIL, MPT, UXA, EJP, QWD

  1. EJP
  2. UXA
  3. QWD
  4. MPT

Ans. UXA

Question 2 – 

In a certain code language,

M & N’ means ‘M is the son of N’,

M@N’ means ‘M is the brother of N’,

‘M$N’ means ‘M is the father of N’,

‘M# N’ means ‘M is the mother of N’

How is Q related to M if ‘S@Q #L#T&P$R@M?

  1. Father’s sister
  2. Mother’s sister
  3. Mother’s mother
  4. Father’s mother

Ans. C

Question 3 – 

In certain code language,

M + N’ means ‘M is the father of N’,

M * N’ means M is the mother of N 

M / N’ means ‘M is the husband of N,

M % N’ means ‘N is the son of m,

M $ N’ means ‘N is the brother M, 

M # N’ means ‘N is the sister of M’. 

 

Which of the following statements is true?

 

  1. P / Q * R / S’ means ‘S is the daughter-in-law of P’.
  2. H % J / K * L’ means ‘L’s husband is the son-in-law of H’
  3. ‘A + B # C * D’ means ‘D is the maternal grandson of A’.
  4. D $ E / F % G’ means ‘D is the uncle of G’.

 

Answer: A

Question 4 – 

Identify the cluster which does not belong to the following series:-

MTW, OQR, QNN, SKH, UHC

Answer – QNN

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Question 5 – 

A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Question:

In an entrance test, a minimum 70% of the total marks are required to pass the entrance test Find the marks scored by Dharani in English to pass the test.

Statements:

  1. Dharani scored 60% marks out of 150 in Math, and she scored two-third out of 180 marks in Science
  2. Ranjith, who is a friend of Dharani, passed the same entrance test by scoring 540 marks, which are 30 more than the passing marks

 

  1. Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer
  2. Statement II alone is sufficient to swer
  3. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer
  4. Neither statement I nor II is sufficient to answer

Ans. Neither statement I nor II is sufficient to answer

Question 6 – 

A question is given, followed by labeled I and II, identify which of the statement is/ are sufficient/necessary to the question: 

 

The sum of the ages of professor and his student is 90 years as of today, what will be the age of students after 3 years 

 

Statements: 

  1. After 5 years, the ratio of ages of the professor and the students will be 7:3 
  2. The professor was 50 years old when the student was 10 year old. 

 

  1. Statement I alone is sufficient,when II alone is sufficient 
  2. Both Statement I and II are necessary 
  3. Either statement I alone or statement II is sufficient 
  4. Statement II is alone, while I is alone is sufficient 

Ans. C

Question 7 – 

Gurugram city is considered as one of the fast-developing industrial hubs of Haryana. It is one of the overpopulated districts, being very close to New Delhi, the capital of India, and has acute shortage of basic amenities and facilities. Gurugram gives ample opportunity to entrepreneurs, businessmen, industrialists and multi-national companies to successfully run their businesses. People from all over the country have settled down in the city because of ample employment opportunities. Starvation and scarcity are inconceivable in Gurugram because it has possibilities for the growth and development of all the different sectors, like business, agriculture, industry services and manufacturing. Even the poorest of the poor in  Gurugram has the possibility to either get a job or start a business but the major hardships for the residents of Gurugram are pollution, poor living conditions, insufficient transport facilities and unplanned construction.

 

Which of the following options best summarizes the main idea of the passage?

 

  1. Poverty, hunger and starvation are the major problems of Gurugram
  2. Gurugram is fast-developing and overpopulated, situated close to New Delhi, and has ample opportunities for entrepreneurs, businessmen, industrialists and multinational companies to successfully run their businesses.
  3.  Gurugram is overpopulated but transport, basic amenities and living conditions are appropriate.
  4. Residents of Gurugram are from the state of Haryana only

Answer: 2

Question 8 – 

Select the option in which the pair of letter-clusters share the same relationship as that shared by the given letter cluster. 

 

QMHUPYJW:  TPLXTBNZ 

 

  1. SVRDFDIN : WZVGKLR 
  2. EGYHDZXL : HXBLHDBO
  3. BELRUVZO : FHPVXDR
  4. YTWEKNLC : CNZINPF 

 

Answer: Wrong options

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Question 9 –

A group of students are to represent their state in an inter-state youth summit. The group must consist of eight students, with not more than two members from each of the given social categories

 

The students available for selection are the following

  1. A, B and C belong to the general category.
  2. D, E and F belong to the OBC category
  3. G H and belong to the SC category
  4. J, K and L belong to the ST category
  5. M, N and O belong to the EWS category.

 

The selection of the candidate must be meeting the following criteria

  1. K and H cannot come together in the team.
  2. D can be selected only if C is also selected and vice-versa.
  3. If L is selected, F must also be selected
  4. If J and G are selected for the team, N or E cannot be selected and vice-versa.
  5.  A and I have to be selected together.

Which of the following teams can be formed?

 

  1. GKOEJCAI
  2. JCIKODAH
  3. JCIGLODA
  4. IJCGDKOA

Ans . D

Question 10 – 

Read the given statement and conclusion carefully: Assuming that the information given in the statement is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. 

 

Statement: 

Some sunglasses are bifocals

All bifocals are trifocals.

Some trifocals are prism lenses. 

All sunglasses are toric lenses.

Conclusions:

  1. Some toric lenses are bifocals.
  2. Some prism lenses are bifocals.

Ill. Some bifocals are not sunglasses.

 

  1. Only conclusion I follows
  2. All of the conclusions follow
  3. None of the conclusions follow
  4. Only conclusion II follows

Ans. A. Only conclusion I follows

Question 11 – 

Assertion (A): Vitamin D is also known as the ‘Sunshine vitamin’ 

Reason(R): Vitamin D is unique because it can be made in the skin from exposure to light. 

 

  1. A is true and R is false 
  2. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 
  3. A is false and R is true 
  4.  Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

 

Answers : Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 12 – 

Following are the criteria for short-listing candidates for a recruitment interview.

The candidate must

  1. a) have a B.A. or B. Sc. degree with at least 60% marks.
  2. b) have a two-year diploma or degree in business administration
  3. c) be ready to deposit a surety amount of 50,000.
  4. d) be in the age range of 25 to 40 years as on 12 November 2019
  5. e) have secured at least 60% marks in the written examination.

 

The criterion at (c) above may be relaxed by 20% in case the candidate has at least 2 years’ work experience in the field of business

 

Based on the aforementioned criteria and without assuming any additional information, take a decision for the following candidate’s profile.

 

Jatin Yadav has a BA degree with 66% marks In addition to it, he holds a degree in business administration. His date of birth falls on 27 December 1987 and half years. Currently, he is working as a Business Manager in a private company for the past two years. He has qualified the written test securing 66% marks and can afford to pay a surety amount of Rs.42000.

 

  1. He must be called for the interview
  2. Cannot say since data are inadequate.
  3. He doesn’t meet age criteria
  4. He must not be called for the interview

 

Answer – He must be called for the interview

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Logical

Question 1 – Identify the letter cluster that does not belong to the following series:

ZBVEKQWAMHTNPCF, FCPNTHMWQKEVZ, VEKQMHTNPCF, FCPNHMQKE, KQMHNPF, PNMQK, KMN

  1. PNMQK
  2. FCPNHMQKE
  3. KQMHNPF
  4. FCPNTHMWQKEVZ

Answer:- FCPNHMQKE

Question 2 – Four pair of letter cluster have been given , out of which some pairs are alike and other pairs are different . Select the once that are similar.

  1. EJOTYDIX : VMLWBGRA
  2. RWBGLQVA : IZYKOTED
  3. CHMRWBGL : XKNUDETO
  4. NSXCHMRW : MVCHSPIZ
  1. b,c & d
  2. A, c & d
  3. A, b & d
  4. C and d only

Ans. A

Question 3 – In a certain code language

‘M & N’ means ‘M is the husband of N’

‘M @ N ‘ means ‘M is the mother of N’

‘M % N’ means ‘M is the daughter of N’ and

‘M # N’ means ‘M is the son-in-law of N’

How is N related to Q if ‘N@T%K#V&P@Q’?

  1. Mother-in-law
  2. Sister-in-law
  3. Mother
  4. Sister

Answer:- Sister

Question 4 – Study the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Seven persons, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, use different brands of clothes, namely Raymond, Allen Solly, Van Heusen, FabIndia, Levi’s, Wrangler and Nike, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them bought a different car, namely BMW, Ferrari, Ford, Porsche, Honda, Lamborghini and Toyota.

The one who uses Wrangler did not buy either of Ferrari, Porsche and Ford. G uses Levi’s brand and did not buy BMW. C bought Honda. F does not use Van Heusen and did not buy either of Ford and BMW. The one who uses Allen Solly bought Toyota, and the one who uses Nike bought Lamborghini. B uses Raymond. Lamborghini is bought by none of A, B and F. BMW is not bought by the person who uses Wrangler or Van Heusen. E bought Ferrari. A does not use Wrangler, FabIndia or Van Heusen. Who uses FabIndia?

Enter the answer in the space provided on the screen. Answer should be in whole numbers without any symbols (eg %, kms, ms, etc.)

Answer:- D

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Question 5 – Identify the letter-cluster that does not belong to the following series.

ANP, BOQ, DQS, GTW, KXZ

_______

Ans. GTW

Question 6 – Read the given statement and courses of action carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing

Statement:

The sanitation workers in a state have decided to go on state-wide strike again in a newly formed state.

Courses of action:

  1. The sanitation workers demands should be accepted by the State Government
  2. The sanitation workers going on strike should be dismissed from their jobs.
  3. The demands of the sanitation workers should be considered with reference to their services in the recent Covid pandemic.
  4. Either I or III follows
  5. Either II or III follows
  6. Either I or II follows
  7. Only III follows

Ans. Either I or III follows

Question 7 – A question is given, Following by two statement is labelled I and II, Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the questions:

Statement:

Five persons – Asrith, Somu, Biswas, Mayur and Riswan – Were sitting around a circular table. Do all of them face the centre?

Conclusion:

  1. Asrith sits second to the left of Somu; Biswas sits second to the right of Asrith.
  2. Mayur sits third to the left of Riswan; Somu sits to the immediate left of Mayur, but Riswan is not an immediate neighbour of somu.
  1. Both the statements I and II together are necessary
  2. Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient
  3. Statement I alone is sufficient, While statement II alone is insufficient
  4. Statement II alone is sufficient, while statement I alone is insufficient

Ans. Both the statements I and II together are necessary

Question 8 – A cricket club wishes to extend its life membership to some promising cricketers. The Executive board has decided the following criteria for giving away these memberships.

  1. i) The candidate must not be more than 28 years of age and not less than 18 years of age as on 1 May 2022.
  2. ii) The candidate must have participated in at least two inter-university tournaments, one of which must have been played under his/her captaincy.

iii) The candidate must have scored at least one century in a state level tournament.

  1. iv) The candidate must have played at least one national level cricket match in which he/she has not scored less than a fifty.
  2. v) The candidate must have won at least one Man/Woman of the Match in a tournament which is at least of a state level tournament.
  1. In case a candidate fulfils all criteria except
  1. ii) but has won a state level tournament under his/her captaincy, his case may be referred to the secretory
  1. In case a candidate fulfils all criteria except the required runs as mentioned in criteria
  1. iv) but is an all-rounder who have scored at least 25 runs along with taking two wickets in the same match, his/her case may be considered by the chairman.

Refer to the details of a candidate provided below and four options that follow. Select the appropriate option that applies to the person’s candidature.

Mithilesh is an emerging player with excellent records to his credit. He has represented his university in seven inter-university tournaments, out of which he has won two cups for his university as captain and has scored four fifties. He was born on 25 January after 53 years of India’s independence. He has also represented his state in three inter-state tournaments, one of which was played under his captaincy in which he scored a fifty and took four wickets for which he was given the Man of the Match award. He also scored a century in his debut national level cricket match

  1. Candidate is not to be selected.
  2. Candidate may be referred to the Secretory.
  3. Candidate is to be selected.
  4. Candidate may be considered by the Chairman.

Answer: Candidate is to be selected.

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Question 9 – In a certain code language,

A  # B means ‘A is the father of B’

‘A $ B’’ means ‘A is mother of B’

A + B’ means ‘A is the father in-law of B’

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the son -in -law of B’

‘A * B’ means ‘B is the son of A’, and

‘A @ B’ means ‘B is the sister of A’.

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. L#M@N$T’ means ‘L is the maternal grandfather of T.
  2. C+D*E@F’ means ‘C is the paternal grandfather of F
  3. ‘G% H#J$ K’ means ‘G is the father of K.
  4. P@Q$R@S’ means ‘P is the maternal uncle of S

Answer:- L#M@N$T’ means ‘L is the maternal grandfather of T.

Question 10 – A statement is given followed by two arguments. Decide which of the arguments is/are strong with respect to the statement.

Statement:

In each and every type of graduation, financial education should be made mandatory in the curriculum.

Arguments:

  1. Students having good financial education will lead to development of the economy of the nation.
  2. Financial education will help students to not fall in debt trap.
  1. Neither argument I nor argument II is strong
  2. Both arguments I and II are strong
  3. Argument II is strong
  4. Argument I is strong

Answer:- Both arguments I and II are strong

Question 11 – A candidate must

  1. a) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 60% marks
  2. b) have at least 55% marks in graduation if he/she has minimum 55% marks in post-graduation c) have at least 50% marks in graduation and minimum 55% marks in post-graduation if he/she holds a PhD degree.
  3. d) have at least 55% marks in graduation if he/she has minimum 5 years of work experience after post-graduation.
  4. e) have at least 55% marks in graduation if he/she has minimum 10 years of work experience after graduation.

Based on the criteria given above and without assuming any additional information, take a decision for the following candidate.

Harbhajan has secured 62% marks in post-graduation and has been working for the past 6 years since then. He has secured 55% marks in graduation.

  1. The candidate is eligible under criterion b) only.
  2. The candidate is eligible under criteria b) and c) only.
  3. The candidate is eligible under criteria b) and d) only.
  4. The candidate is eligible under criterion c) only.

Answer:- The candidate is eligible under criteria b) and d) only.

Question 12 – A question is given followed by two statements labellel I & II. Identify which of the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Questions:

In a reputed school, the number of Grade I, II & III teaching faculty members are in ratio of 4:5:6 respectively. Find the percentage of female family members in the school?

Statements:

  1. 50% of grade I facility members are male and 30% of grade II faculty members are female.
  2. In grade III, the number of female faculty members is equal to the number of male faculty members.
  1. Data in both statements I & II together are sufficient to answer.
  2. Data in statements II alone is  sufficient to answer.
  3. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer
  4. Neither data in statement I nor II is sufficient to answer

Answer:- Data in both statements I & II together are sufficient to answer.

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Question 13 – Mohit, Vibha, Shalini, Garima, Puneet, Preeti and Kanika are seven teachers who are teaching different courses, namely Psychology, Sociology and Commerce. At least two teachers teach the subjects in each course. All the teachers are staying in different residential buildings, namely A, B, C, D, E, F and G, but not exactly in the same order. Mohit teaches Psychology with Puneet and stays in Building C. Garima lives in Building G and does not teach Sociology. One of the teachers who lives in Building F teaches Commerce. Vibha and Shalini do not teach the subjects in the same courses. The teachers who teach Psychology do not live in Building B. Preeti lives in Building A, but does not teach Commerce. Kanika teaches the same subjects as Preeti. Shalini stays in Building E.

In which building does Puneet stay?

  1. B
  2. D
  3. A
  4. C

Answer:- D

Coding

Question 1-

Alice has introduced a new online game which has N levels i e., 1 to N. She wants to get reviews for each level of this game so she will launch only a single level of game on any particular day, and on that day users of this game are allowed to play only that particular level. As there are N levels so it will take exactly N days to launch all levels of the game, it is not necessary that level of game will be launched in increasing order, she will pick any random level on particular day and launch it, and it is obvious that any level of the game can’t be launched twice. After completing the level, the user will give reviews and she will give them one reward unit for each level the user will complete. Alice has put one constraint on users that only after completing any level of game, user will be able to play higher levels. For E.g. If Alice has launched the 3rd level of the game on the first day and if any user completes it then he will get one reward point, but now. he can’t play the game with level 1 and level 2.

NOTE: If a user wants to skip to play on any number of days, he is free to do that.

You are the best gamer, so you can easily complete all levels. As you want to maximize your reward points, you want to play as many levels as you can. Alice has already announced the order in which she will launch levels of his game, your aim is to maximize your reward points.

Given number of levels of games(N) and order of level of games launched one by one on each day. You have to output maximum reward points you can earn.

Hint: You will play any game if and only if that number is becoming the part of the longest subsequence in array of order of games.

Example 1:

  • Input:
    5 -> N = 5
    2 1 3 4 5 -> Order of levels, Alice will launch one by one
  • Output:
    4
  • Explanation:
    If you play the 2nd level of the game on the first day, then you will not be able to play the 1st level of the game on the 2nd day. As after completing the 2nd level, you will be able to play higher levels. From 3rd day you can play all upcoming levels as those levels are in increasing order. So, possible sequences of levels of games played to maximize rewards points are [2, 3, 4, 5] or [1, 3, 4, 5]. In both cases you will get 4 reward points.

Example 2:

  • Input:
    5 -> N = 5
    5 4 3 2 1 -> Order of levels, Alice will launch one by one
  • Output:
    1

Explanation:
Alice has launched levels in decreasing order, so you will be able to play exactly one level of game. After playing any level, there are no higher levels on coming days, so maximum reward point is 1.

 

Question 2

Mike has arranged a small party for the inauguration of his new startup. He has invited all of his fellow employees who are N in number.

These employees are indexed with an array starting from 1 to N. In this startup everyone knows each other’s salary. We will represent salary by an integer value.

Mike has to arrange tables, where he will accommodate everyone. But he is a little thrifty in that, he wants to adjust everyone in as few tables as he can. Tables of various seating are available. Let’s say the cost of renting each table is K.
All the employees have to seat in the order of the index.

The only problem is that the employees with the same salary can get into arguments which can ruin the party.

Mike came across the term inefficiency of arrangement, which can be defined as the sum of the cost of tables + total number of people getting into arguments. Given the number of employees, N, and their salaries in array a[ ], he wants to find the optimal inefficiency, i.e., the smallest possible value for the inefficiency of arranging the N employees.

Let’s understand it with an example.
Number of employees invited N = 5
A a = {5 1 3 3 3}
K = 1

Now let’s check all the combinations and how in-efficient is all of them.

When we make 1st, 2nd, and 3rd employee on table-1 and 4th and 5th on table-2
Cost of 2 tables = 2*1
Number of people getting into arguments = 2 (two 3’s: 4th and 5th employee)
Total = 2 + 2 = 4

When we make 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th employees on table-1 and 5th on table-2
Cost of 2 tables = 2*1
Number of people getting into arguments = 2 (two 3’s: 4th and 5th employee)
Total = 2 + 2 = 4

When we make all of them sit at 1 table, then inefficiency will be
Cost of 1 table = 1
Number of people getting into arguments = 3 (all 3’s: 3rd, 4th and 5th employee)
Total = 1 + 3 = 4

When we make 1st, 2nd and 3rd employee on table-1 and 4th on table-2 and 5th on table-3
Cost of 3 tables = 3*1
Number of people getting into arguments = 0 (all 3’s is. sitting at different tables)
Total = 3 + 0 = 3

Hence the optimal in-efficiency is 3.
So, the output will be 3.

Example 1:

  • Input:
    5 1 -> Input Integer, N and K
    {5, 1, 3, 3, 3) Input Integer, array elements a[i].
  • Output:
    3 -> Output
  • Explanation:
    Below is the seating for each case:

    Case 1:
    Table 1: 1st, 2nd and 3rd
    Table 2: 4th and 5th
    Number of people getting into arguments: 2
    Total in-efficiency: 2*1 + 2 = 4

    Case 2:
    Table 1: 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th
    Table 2: 5th
    Number of people getting into arguments: 2
    Total in-efficiency: 2*1 + 2 = 4

    Case 3:
    Table 1: 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th
    Number of people getting into arguments: 3
    Total in-efficiency: 1*1 + 3 = 4

    Case 4:
    Table 1: 1st, 2nd and 3rd
    Table 2: 4th
    Table 3: 5th
    Number of people getting into arguments: 0
    Total in-efficiency: 3*1 + 0 = 3

    Choosing the minimum which is 3.
    So, the answer is 3.

Example 2:

  • Input:
    5 14 -> Input Integer, N and K.
    {1, 4, 2, 4, 4} -> Input Integer, array elements a[i].
  • Output:
    17 -> Output

Explanation:
Below is the seating for each case:

Case 1:
Table 1: 1st, 2nd and 3rd
Table 2: 4th and 5th
Number of people getting into arguments: 2
Total in-efficiency: 2*14 + 2 = 30

Case 2:
Table 1: 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th
Table 2: 5th
Number of people getting into arguments: 2
Total in-efficiency: 2*14 + 2 = 30

Case 3:
Table 1: 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th
Number of people getting into arguments: 3
Total in-efficiency: 1*14+3 = 17

Case 4:
Table 1: 1st, 2nd and 3rd
Table 2: 4th
Table 3: 5th
Number of people getting into arguments: 3
Total in-efficiency: 3*14+ 0 = 42

Choosing the minimum which is 17.
So, the answer is 17.

 

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Advanced Quants

Question 1: The probability of having at least one girl and one boy in a family of four children, assuming equal probability of male and female births is:

  1. 0.8525
  2. 0.7625
  3. 0.8750
  4. 0.9375

Answer: 0.8750

 

Question 2: Find the distance between the points of intersection of the tangent to the hyperbola xy = 1 at the point (2, \frac{1}{2}) with the axes.

  1. \sqrt14
  2. \sqrt15
  3. \sqrt17
  4. \sqrt13

Answer:  

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Question 3: If \alpha, \beta are the roots of px^2 = qx = r = 0, then =\frac{\alpha^3 + \beta^3}{\alpha^-{3} + \beta^{-3}}__________.</p><ol><li aria-level="1">\frac{3pqr – q^3}{r^3}

  • \frac{q^2 – 2pr}{pr}
  • \frac{r^3}{p^3}
  • \frac{r^2}{p^2}
  • Answer: \frac{r^3}{p^3}

     

    Question 4: If 1\le x\le 3 and -8\le y\le 16, and the minimum value of \frac{x + y}{y} is \frac{a}{b}, then the values of a and b satisfy which of the following equations?

    1. a + b = 1
    2. a^2 + b^2 = 89
    3. a – b = 0.5
    4. a^2 – b^2 = -15

    Answer: a^2 + b^2 = 89

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    Question 5: If the roots of 2x^3 – 3x^2 – 11x + 6 = 0 are in Arithmetic progression, then the greatest positive integer root is

    Answer: 3

     

    Question 6: If real number x, y, z satisfy the equation (x + y)^2 + (y + z)^2 + (z + x)^2 = 2(xy + yz + zx), find the value of the expression 3x + 5y + 7z

     

    Answer: 64

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    Question 7: Login identities are formed by using four distinct letters from the alphabet followed by a fixed number of digits not necessarily distinct. If we want to generate 999 crore identities, how many digits should be there in a login identity?

    Answer: 

     

    Question 8: Study the table below and answer the following question:

     

    Characteristics200920142019
    TotalPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent voted
    Total109701156912868
    Male607361706369
    Female596962686570
    Caucasian95781067211868
    African – American155618542052
    Region
    Northwest797581739668
    South355838624256
    Age(years)
    18-24115513512651
    25-44486849665064
    45-64377842764470
    64+186719674063

     

    In 2014 what percentage (to nearest value) of persons of voting age were male?

    1. 52.55%
    2. 53.04%
    3. 50.55%
    4. 51.65%

    Answer: Option B – 53.04%

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    Question 9: Study the table below and answer the following question:

     

    Characteristics200920142019
    TotalPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent voted
    Total109701156912868
    Male607361706369
    Female596962686570
    Caucasian95781067211868
    African – American155618542052
    Region
    Northwest797581739668
    South355838624256
    Age(years)
    18-24115513512651
    25-44486849665064
    45-64377842764470
    64+186719674063

     

    In 2009, how many females of voting age voted?

    1. 43.76 million
    2. 40.71 million
    3. 42.36 million
    4. 41.89 million

    Answer: Option B – 40.71 million

     

    Question 10: Study the table below and answer the following question:

     

    Characteristics200920142019
    TotalPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent voted
    Total109701156912868
    Male607361706369
    Female596962686570
    Caucasian95781067211868
    African – American155618542052
    Region
    Northwest797581739668
    South355838624256
    Age(years)
    18-24115513512651
    25-44486849665064
    45-64377842764470
    64+186719674063

     

    Over the three elections, what is the ratio of the total votes cast by females to those cast by African- American?

    1. 128.3: 28.5
    2. 127.3: 25.6
    3. 125: 25
    4. 126.3: 27.6

    Answer: Option A – 128.3: 28.5
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    Advance Logical

    Question 1 – Seven car drivers, P, Q, R, S, T, U and W, reach Delhi in a particular sequence. U reached immediately before P, but does not immediately follow S. R is the last one to reach Delhi. T follows immediately after P and is subsequently followed by W.

    Who ranked last in the sequence of reaching Delhi?

    Answer:- R

    Question 2 – In a certain code, ETY written as 145. How will EOJT be written in that code?

    Ans . 150

    Question 3 – Eight boys, B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6, B7, and B8, sit around a circular table facing towards the centre. B3 is second to the left of B5. B1 is third to the right of the one who sits diagonally opposit to B4. B6 sits opposite to the one who is to the immediate left of B2. Neither B6 nor B7 is adjacent to B3. B8 sits second to the right of B2. Who is the immediate left of B3?

    Answer:-B2

    Question 4 –In a certain code, if FOCUS = 23 and PERIL=43, the GAMBLE will be equal to:

    1. 47
    2. 51
    3. 41
    4. 78

    Question 5 –A statement is given followed by three arguments. Decide which of the arguments is/are strong with respect to the statement.

     

    Statement:

    It is observed that in India, many students go to foreign countries for studies, and in the end, they settle there.

     

    Arguments:

    1. Foreign countries have a better lifestyle.
    2. Quality of education in foreign countries is much better than that in India.
    3. Foreign countries give more privileges to their citizens.

     

    1. Argument II is strong
    2. Argument I is strong
    3. Both arguments I and II are strong
    4. Argument III is strong

    Ans. A – Argument II is strong

     

     

    Question 6 – The following criteria is decided by a company for the selection of an accountant.

    1. The candidate must have done MBA in Finance
    2. Minimum and maximum age of the candidate should be between 21 years and 35 years as 31 March 2022.
    3. If the candidate does not satisfy the above two conditions but has completed his/her CA, the case will be forwarded to the Finance head and  he/she can allow the candidate to appear for the interview.
    4. If the candidate satisfies conditions 1 and 2 above, then such candidates will be called for the preliminary interview.
    5. If the candidate has scored 60% marks in the preliminary interview, then he/she will be called for the final interview.
    6. For the final selection, the candidate must get 80% marks in the final interview.

     

    Mr. Mohil Srivastava was born on 4 May 1995 and has done MBA  1 year ago. He was number one in the merit list of candidates of the preliminary interview, with a score of 58%. Based on the given criteria, decide whether Mr. Mohit Srivastava will be selected or not.

     

    Answer: Not selected

    Question 7 – There are five floors in a building, numbered 1 to 5 in such a way that the lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the topmost floor is numbered 5. Five members, namely R, L, T, C and A, live on different floors of the building, but not necessarily in the same order. Also, these five work in different companies, namely C1, C2, C3, C4, and C5. T stays on floor no. 2 and works in C4, and C stays on floor no. 5. Also, the one who stays on floor no. 1 is working in C1. Who lives on floor no. 3 and in which company does she/he work?

     

    Statements:

    1. Neither L nor A works in C1.
    2. One who lives on floor no. 3 works in C3; A does not work in C3.

     

    1. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer
    2. Neither data in statement I nor II is sufficient to answer
    3. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer
    4. Data in both statements I and II are sufficient to answer

    Answer: Data in both statements I and II are sufficient to answer

     

     

    Question 8 – Read the given information carefully and then answer the question that follows.

     

    A restaurant serves seven different sweets to its customers on Saturday night after the dinner. The sweets are as follows: Gulab jamun, Sandesh, Modak, Shrikhand, Payasam, Phirni and Ghevar. The diner is free to select the order of the seven sweets, according to the following conditions:

     

    1. Payasam is served some time after Shrikhand
    2. Exactly one sweet should be served between Sandesh and Modak in the same order.

    iii. Phirni is served some time before Sandesh

    1. Payasam is served either fifth or sixth.
    2. Gulab Jamun is served second.

     

    Which of the following sequences is acceptable?

    1. Shrikhand, Gulab Jamun, Phirni, Ghevar, Sandesh, Payasam, Modak.
    2. Phirni, Gulab Jamun, Sandesh, Shrikhand, Payasam , Modak, Ghevar
    3. Phirni, Gulab Jamun, Shrikand, Payasam, Sandesh, Ghevar, Modak
    4. Shrikand, Gulab Jamun, Ghevar, Sandesh, Payasam, Modak, Phirni,

    Answer:  A

    Question 9 – Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.

     

    The following are the eligibility criteria for applying for the post of Officer in an MNC:

     

    1. The candidate should be a graduate with minimum 68% marks.
    2. The candidate should have at least 65% marks in graduation if he/she has post-graduation with at least 70% marks.
    3. The candidate should have at least 60% in graduation and at least 65% marks in post-graduation if he/she holds a Doctoral Degree (PhD).

     

    1. The candidate should have at least 60% marks in both graduation and post-graduation if he/she has at least 4 years of work experience after post-graduation.
    2. The candidate should have at least 65% marks in graduation if he/she has at least 8 years of work experience after graduation.

    Details of a candidate are given below. You have to decide under which of the above criteria is the candidate eligible. The candidate may be eligible under one or more criteria given above.

    Read the information given in the question and find out the correct answer.

    Sushama has been working from 3 years after completing her PhD. She has 65% marks in graduation and 60% in post-graduation.

     

    1. Only criteria (iii) and (iv)
    2. Only criteria (iii)
    3. Only criteria (iv)
    4. Not eligible

    Answer: A – Only criteria (iii) and (iv)

     

    Question 10 – A statement is given followed by two arguments. Decide which of the arguments is/are strong with respect to the statement?

    Statements:

    In schools, primary level education should be given in the mother tongue of the students

    Arguments

     

    1. Students can learn very easily in their mother language.
    2. Students will feel more comfortable while thinking and absorbing the knowledge provided by the teacher.

     

    Options

    1. Both arguments I and II are strong
    2. Argument I is strong
    3. Neither argument I nor II is strong
    4. Argument II is strong

    Answer: a – Both arguments I and II are strong. 

    Advanced Quants

    Question 1: The probability of having at least one girl and one boy in a family of four children, assuming equal probability of male and female births is:

    1. 0.8525
    2. 0.7625
    3. 0.8750
    4. 0.9375

    Answer: 0.8750

    Question 2: Find the distance between the points of intersection of the tangent to the hyperbola xy = 1 at the point (2, \frac{1}{2}) with the axes.

    1. \sqrt14
    2. \sqrt15
    3. \sqrt17
    4. \sqrt13

    Answer:  

    TCS Advertisement

    Question 3: If \alpha, \beta are the roots of px^2 = qx = r = 0, then =\frac{\alpha^3 + \beta^3}{\alpha^-{3} + \beta^{-3}}__________.</p><ol><li aria-level="1">\frac{3pqr – q^3}{r^3}

  • \frac{q^2 – 2pr}{pr}
  • \frac{r^3}{p^3}
  • \frac{r^2}{p^2}
  • Answer: \frac{r^3}{p^3}

    Question 4: If 1\le x\le 3 and -8\le y\le 16, and the minimum value of \frac{x + y}{y} is \frac{a}{b}, then the values of a and b satisfy which of the following equations?

    1. a + b = 1
    2. a^2 + b^2 = 89
    3. a – b = 0.5
    4. a^2 – b^2 = -15

    Answer: a^2 + b^2 = 89

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    Question 5: If the roots of 2x^3 – 3x^2 – 11x + 6 = 0 are in Arithmetic progression, then the greatest positive integer root is

    Answer: 3

    Question 6: If real number x, y, z satisfy the equation (x + y)^2 + (y + z)^2 + (z + x)^2 = 2(xy + yz + zx), find the value of the expression 3x + 5y + 7z

    Answer: 64

    TCS Advertisement

    Question 7: Login identities are formed by using four distinct letters from the alphabet followed by a fixed number of digits not necessarily distinct. If we want to generate 999 crore identities, how many digits should be there in a login identity?

    Answer: 

    Question 8: Study the table below and answer the following question:

    Characteristics200920142019
    TotalPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent voted
    Total109701156912868
    Male607361706369
    Female596962686570
    Caucasian95781067211868
    African – American155618542052
    Region
    Northwest797581739668
    South355838624256
    Age(years)
    18-24115513512651
    25-44486849665064
    45-64377842764470
    64+186719674063

    In 2014 what percentage (to nearest value) of persons of voting age were male?

    1. 52.55%
    2. 53.04%
    3. 50.55%
    4. 51.65%

    Answer: Option B – 53.04%

    TCS Advertisement

    Question 9: Study the table below and answer the following question:

    Characteristics200920142019
    TotalPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent voted
    Total109701156912868
    Male607361706369
    Female596962686570
    Caucasian95781067211868
    African – American155618542052
    Region
    Northwest797581739668
    South355838624256
    Age(years)
    18-24115513512651
    25-44486849665064
    45-64377842764470
    64+186719674063

    In 2009, how many females of voting age voted?

    1. 43.76 million
    2. 40.71 million
    3. 42.36 million
    4. 41.89 million

    Answer: Option B – 40.71 million

    Question 10: Study the table below and answer the following question:

    Characteristics200920142019
    TotalPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent votedPersons of voting agePercent voted
    Total109701156912868
    Male607361706369
    Female596962686570
    Caucasian95781067211868
    African – American155618542052
    Region
    Northwest797581739668
    South355838624256
    Age(years)
    18-24115513512651
    25-44486849665064
    45-64377842764470
    64+186719674063

    Over the three elections, what is the ratio of the total votes cast by females to those cast by African- American?

    1. 128.3: 28.5
    2. 127.3: 25.6
    3. 125: 25
    4. 126.3: 27.6

    Answer: Option A – 128.3: 28.5
    TCS Advertisement

    Advance Logical

    Question 1 – Seven car drivers, P, Q, R, S, T, U and W, reach Delhi in a particular sequence. U reached immediately before P, but does not immediately follow S. R is the last one to reach Delhi. T follows immediately after P and is subsequently followed by W.

    Who ranked last in the sequence of reaching Delhi?

    Answer:- R

    Question 2 – In a certain code, ETY written as 145. How will EOJT be written in that code?

    Ans . 150

    Question 3 – Eight boys, B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6, B7, and B8, sit around a circular table facing towards the centre. B3 is second to the left of B5. B1 is third to the right of the one who sits diagonally opposit to B4. B6 sits opposite to the one who is to the immediate left of B2. Neither B6 nor B7 is adjacent to B3. B8 sits second to the right of B2. Who is the immediate left of B3?

    Answer:-B2

    Question 4 –In a certain code, if FOCUS = 23 and PERIL=43, the GAMBLE will be equal to:

    1. 47
    2. 51
    3. 41
    4. 78

    Question 5 –A statement is given followed by three arguments. Decide which of the arguments is/are strong with respect to the statement.

    Statement:

    It is observed that in India, many students go to foreign countries for studies, and in the end, they settle there.

    Arguments:

    1. Foreign countries have a better lifestyle.
    2. Quality of education in foreign countries is much better than that in India.
    3. Foreign countries give more privileges to their citizens.
    1. Argument II is strong
    2. Argument I is strong
    3. Both arguments I and II are strong
    4. Argument III is strong

    Ans. A – Argument II is strong

    Question 6 – The following criteria is decided by a company for the selection of an accountant.

    1. The candidate must have done MBA in Finance
    2. Minimum and maximum age of the candidate should be between 21 years and 35 years as 31 March 2022.
    3. If the candidate does not satisfy the above two conditions but has completed his/her CA, the case will be forwarded to the Finance head and  he/she can allow the candidate to appear for the interview.
    4. If the candidate satisfies conditions 1 and 2 above, then such candidates will be called for the preliminary interview.
    5. If the candidate has scored 60% marks in the preliminary interview, then he/she will be called for the final interview.
    6. For the final selection, the candidate must get 80% marks in the final interview.

    Mr. Mohil Srivastava was born on 4 May 1995 and has done MBA  1 year ago. He was number one in the merit list of candidates of the preliminary interview, with a score of 58%. Based on the given criteria, decide whether Mr. Mohit Srivastava will be selected or not.

    Answer: Not selected

    Question 7 – There are five floors in a building, numbered 1 to 5 in such a way that the lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the topmost floor is numbered 5. Five members, namely R, L, T, C and A, live on different floors of the building, but not necessarily in the same order. Also, these five work in different companies, namely C1, C2, C3, C4, and C5. T stays on floor no. 2 and works in C4, and C stays on floor no. 5. Also, the one who stays on floor no. 1 is working in C1. Who lives on floor no. 3 and in which company does she/he work?

    Statements:

    1. Neither L nor A works in C1.
    2. One who lives on floor no. 3 works in C3; A does not work in C3.
    1. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer
    2. Neither data in statement I nor II is sufficient to answer
    3. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer
    4. Data in both statements I and II are sufficient to answer

    Answer: Data in both statements I and II are sufficient to answer

    Question 8 – Read the given information carefully and then answer the question that follows.

    A restaurant serves seven different sweets to its customers on Saturday night after the dinner. The sweets are as follows: Gulab jamun, Sandesh, Modak, Shrikhand, Payasam, Phirni and Ghevar. The diner is free to select the order of the seven sweets, according to the following conditions:

    1. Payasam is served some time after Shrikhand
    2. Exactly one sweet should be served between Sandesh and Modak in the same order.

    iii. Phirni is served some time before Sandesh

    1. Payasam is served either fifth or sixth.
    2. Gulab Jamun is served second.

    Which of the following sequences is acceptable?

    1. Shrikhand, Gulab Jamun, Phirni, Ghevar, Sandesh, Payasam, Modak.
    2. Phirni, Gulab Jamun, Sandesh, Shrikhand, Payasam , Modak, Ghevar
    3. Phirni, Gulab Jamun, Shrikand, Payasam, Sandesh, Ghevar, Modak
    4. Shrikand, Gulab Jamun, Ghevar, Sandesh, Payasam, Modak, Phirni,

    Answer:  A

    Question 9 – Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.

    The following are the eligibility criteria for applying for the post of Officer in an MNC:

    1. The candidate should be a graduate with minimum 68% marks.
    2. The candidate should have at least 65% marks in graduation if he/she has post-graduation with at least 70% marks.
    3. The candidate should have at least 60% in graduation and at least 65% marks in post-graduation if he/she holds a Doctoral Degree (PhD).
    1. The candidate should have at least 60% marks in both graduation and post-graduation if he/she has at least 4 years of work experience after post-graduation.
    2. The candidate should have at least 65% marks in graduation if he/she has at least 8 years of work experience after graduation.

    Details of a candidate are given below. You have to decide under which of the above criteria is the candidate eligible. The candidate may be eligible under one or more criteria given above.

    Read the information given in the question and find out the correct answer.

    Sushama has been working from 3 years after completing her PhD. She has 65% marks in graduation and 60% in post-graduation.

    1. Only criteria (iii) and (iv)
    2. Only criteria (iii)
    3. Only criteria (iv)
    4. Not eligible

    Answer: A – Only criteria (iii) and (iv)

    Question 10 – A statement is given followed by two arguments. Decide which of the arguments is/are strong with respect to the statement?

    Statements:

    In schools, primary level education should be given in the mother tongue of the students

    Arguments

    1. Students can learn very easily in their mother language.
    2. Students will feel more comfortable while thinking and absorbing the knowledge provided by the teacher.

    Options

    1. Both arguments I and II are strong
    2. Argument I is strong
    3. Neither argument I nor II is strong
    4. Argument II is strong

    Answer: a – Both arguments I and II are strong.